Why does the KJV use words like "Saith", "Doeth", "Thee" and "Thou"?

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Uploaded by on Jun 16, 2010

Do we really need the classical English words to help us accurately understand the scriptures? Author David W. Daniels explains why we REALLY do need them.

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  • @junglehappiness stupid argument!

  • @JackFinn

    The reason the KJV seems more accurate than the NIV is because they were both translated using 2 different methods. The KJV is a FORMAL translation, meaning word-for-word, basically. The NIV is a DYNAMIC translation, meaning the translation is based on the meaning of the text.

    Example in Spanish..."Tengo treinta (30) años". Word for word says "I have 30 years". Dynamic is "I'm 30 years old."

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  • Translations are created for ease of understanding, we do not speak or understand very good in 17th century, shakesperean English, thank God for good translations.

  • Amen

  • People would rather have Bibles that are "easy to read" rather than accurate. The mania for "up-to-date" Bibles has led not only a veritable babel of Bible versions with significantly different readings in many places, but also a continual "need" for new and "better" translations every 20 or so years. The abandonment of the KJV as the standard Bible has been a catastrophe, and has not led to greater Christian commitment in society but rather less.

  • he says king james did not talk like this,with "Saith", "Doeth", "Thee" and "Thou", We all know they all did just by reading there letters to each other,not only that,but there are many english books writen in that time period that reads as so.,so why would he lie and say they did not talk this way? Any one who ever read any true english text knows this.

  • I just learned so much. Thank you! I'm doing so much research and have realized that KJV is the most accurate English Bible there is. I'll learn to understand it. It doesn't sound hard, I just always assumed it was, so I never tried. I've been reading the NIV my whole life.

  • The problem with this argument is, there are always going to be these kinds of subtleties of translation lost -- for instance, nouns are masculine or feminine in Greek and Latin -- as they are in all Romance languages. But we don't have that direct equivalent in English. Any translation from any of those languages to English simply strips out that layer of meaning and any translation from English into those languages *imposes* that layer of meaning, which is absent in English.

  • lol

  • sounds like snagglepuss's dialect

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