@david4shure f ' '(x) must be 0 or undefined at the inflection point. The problem at hand is a proof that the graph of f(x)=ax^2+bx+c has no inflection points. if you show that there are no points where f ' ' (x) =0 or is undefined then you have acomplished this because you have excluded any p...
@pola4u actually you could think of the f'x for f(x)=x^0 as f'x=0x^-1 so the -1 exponenent derivative doesnt really just disappear its just that the 0 exponent in effect erased it by creating the 0 factor that conceals the factor containing x^-1
@rob565 video is only named with a 3 because its the third video on optimization man.