Sir, did you mean that if we multiply (Kamp)(Ks) gives us the value of Vo/Vs,so for example, I supposedly get 10 by multiplying Kamp and Ks,is that means that for 1 volt in the input gives us 10 volts in the output.kindly clear this up for me,tnx
hey drj. great video thanks, could you please either answer this question, or direct me to the video that covers it?
(Vo/Vp) = 1 + (R3/R4) I can see that this equates to Vo equals the Positive input voltage added to the voltage divider created by the two resistors, but isnt the amplifier differential? I thought Vp and Vn had to be around about the same?
Sir, did you mean that if we multiply (Kamp)(Ks) gives us the value of Vo/Vs,so for example, I supposedly get 10 by multiplying Kamp and Ks,is that means that for 1 volt in the input gives us 10 volts in the output.kindly clear this up for me,tnx
chrisrole1 1 day ago
@chrisrole1 Yes, you are correct in your last statement. Dr J
drjcircuits 1 day ago
yes Vn =Vp
22Ezzo 1 month ago
So much better explanation than Bengt Molin's!
Drajer 6 months ago
Yes, in the ideal case. vout=A(vp-vn) so when the gain A is infinite (ideal), then vp-vn=0=vout/A and hence vp=vn. Hope this helps! Dr J
drjcircuits 9 months ago
Does Vp = Vn ?
knmleaguecity 9 months ago
good
perazaroberto2 1 year ago
hey drj. great video thanks, could you please either answer this question, or direct me to the video that covers it?
(Vo/Vp) = 1 + (R3/R4) I can see that this equates to Vo equals the Positive input voltage added to the voltage divider created by the two resistors, but isnt the amplifier differential? I thought Vp and Vn had to be around about the same?
Thanks
NoHeartAnthony 2 years ago