Added: 3 years ago
From: drjcircuits
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  • Sir, did you mean that if we multiply (Kamp)(Ks) gives us the value of Vo/Vs,so for example, I supposedly get 10 by multiplying Kamp and Ks,is that means that for 1 volt in the input gives us 10 volts in the output.kindly clear this up for me,tnx

  • @chrisrole1 Yes, you are correct in your last statement.  Dr J

  • yes Vn =Vp

  • So much better explanation than Bengt Molin's!

  • Yes, in the ideal case. vout=A(vp-vn) so when the gain A is infinite (ideal), then vp-vn=0=vout/A and hence vp=vn. Hope this helps! Dr J

  • Does Vp = Vn ?

  • good

    

  • hey drj. great video thanks, could you please either answer this question, or direct me to the video that covers it?

    (Vo/Vp) = 1 + (R3/R4) I can see that this equates to Vo equals the Positive input voltage added to the voltage divider created by the two resistors, but isnt the amplifier differential? I thought Vp and Vn had to be around about the same?

    Thanks

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