Added: 5 years ago
From: vcutvhd
Views: 5,312
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  • I have read the play written by Euripides... In the book its Medea,who speak her Own lines but here its some other persOn speaks the lines for her... Its bit confusing for me now????

  • I agree with marikitkat. Also Euripidies wanted to the audience to have empathy for Medea even though she's a killer.

    And to gwennn89, if the actress is truly deaf she probably can't speak her lines because when people are born deaf/deaf from an early age, they don't know how words sound so they don't speak (necessarily)/don't know how to form words, but can still laugh/scream/cry etc.

    Jason signs to communicate with Medea and speaks to communicate to the audience.

  • really? I thought she was deaf... ('o')

  • I think it's meant to emphasize the fact that Medea is from another country. I think it's meant to isolate her and show that she is NOT one of the Greeks, but a foreigner.

  • can someone enlighten me? \: why the choice of medea not reading her own lines and focusing purely on physicalization, whereas jason reads AND signlangs his lines? i think its more powerful when the same person does both... its not that the actress is mute, she laughed just now...

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