no offense meant, but you talk 6 mins about obvious stuff, and then 20 secs about the only thing that needs to be explained. And the explanation is not overly convincing (-> rigorous).
I'd say 1/r is due to the fact that r times the partial differential of theta gives the arclenght of displacement in the direction of theta. That way we have the same type of units in both terms.
what is wrong with you?
MrDrusev 5 months ago
no offense meant, but you talk 6 mins about obvious stuff, and then 20 secs about the only thing that needs to be explained. And the explanation is not overly convincing (-> rigorous).
longmatt 2 years ago 5
Usual mediocre idiot
khasanov2008 2 years ago
Good information, but you are SO monotone. It almost put me to sleep. It reminds me of one of my recitation instructors lmao.
Soupteh1337 3 years ago
I'd say 1/r is due to the fact that r times the partial differential of theta gives the arclenght of displacement in the direction of theta. That way we have the same type of units in both terms.
dnvlgm1 4 years ago
Love the explain series, keep it up!
CorinthianP 4 years ago