@Michel0555 rem the rule for differentiating a constant raised to a fn, say a^x that is a^x *lna. do the opp for the integrating part of it ie. a^x=a^x /lna,so in ur case it is 5*4^(3x+2) /ln(5*4)........
@stuntyannick2 Check ur ans bcuz that looks like u have an x-1 inside the braces which is not correct,rem d/dx of x is 1 in this case -1 so u just multiply this by x=-x and multiply by e^x thus you have -xe^-x or -x/e^x.
e= (1+h^-1)^h as h approaches infinity thus common sense says e= (1+h)^(1/h) as h approaches zero. raise by power of h on both sides and you get e^h=1+h as h approaches zero which is one. now try (e^(x+h)-e^x)/h which e^(x+h)=e^x*e^h so you can write as (e^x* e^h)-e^x and you can take out e^x to put as e^x (e^h-1)/h but wait! e^h = 1+h as proven before! so e^x *(h+1)-1/h which is e^x h/h and finally limit of h approaches zero of ( e^x)*h/h? h/h =1 so you get e^x.
@Forman6 hmm I see what you are saying...nice proof. Yet mine still works. It does rely on the prior assertion/proof (see another video by khanacademy-proof of derivative of ln(x)). Basically I am using the knowledge that d/dx(ln(x))=1/x (which by the way is almost the techincal definition of e. e's most basic definition is that the area under 1/x from 1 to e=1--the other definitions...i.e. lim (1+1/n)^n are all derived from this definition) It is still a rigorous proof just (f(x+h)-f(x))/h
@Forman6 hmm I see what you are saying...nice proof. Yet mine still works. It does rely on the prior assertion/proof (see another video by khanacademy-proof of derivative of ln(x)). Basically I am using the knowledge that d/dx(ln(x))=1/x (which by the way is almost the techincal definition of e. e's most basic definition is that the area under 1/x from 1 to e=1--the other definitions...i.e. lim (1+1/n)^n are all derived from this definition) It is still a rigorous proof just not (f(x+h)-f(x))/h
@Forman6 Cool. that's awesome--being a math major. Where do you go?
I love proofs so much. I guess it is the fact that when something is proved (by definition) it is ABSOLUTELY true.
Unlike science where you match a model to fit observation, with math the numbers are self-consistent. The beauty found in mathematics (even though we invented it!) transcends anything i have ever seen.
I am not a mathematician. Still, there is something unsatisfying about this proof. I'm certainly not contesting it, it's just that if I were Euhler or Newton or whoever, wouldn't I have figured out what d/dx(e^x) was before I went to work on d/dx(ln(e^x))?
Eh, maybe not. Anyway, your videos are, as always, incredibly useful and well-explained. Thanks for doing this.
@khanacademy I am doing calculus hw now and have been looking online for like an hour to find a description of why the derivative of e^x is e^x (and more importantly why it seems to be more specifically like if y=e^x, y'=((d/dx)x)(e^x)). Your video has been helpful, but is confusing at one point... when you multiply both sides by e^x, you get (d/dx)(e^x) = e^x. Why do you not multiply the (d/dx)(e^x) by e^x and get e^x(d/dx)(e^x) = e^x? Without doing this you get a nice proof but like.. huh?
My apologies to Sal. I posted a complaint about an error in his talk on the derivative of e^x (the first video). I misread what he put on the board (a product as an equality). My bad! You were right!
It's a little misleading that e^x dervitive is e^x, it is true, but if we expand it a little bit, d/dx(n^x) = ln(n) * n^x where if n = e then ln(e) = 1 so ln(e) * e^x = 1 * e^x. The reality of exponential functions is that they are growing very rapidly. Another interesting reality is that d/dx(n^x) / n^x = ln(n)
You can verify this by going to google and using the literal method of diffrentiation ((3^(2.000001) - 3^(2.0000001))/ (3.000001 - 3.0000001))/(3^2) will yield you ln(3)
You can use the same method to prove that d/dx(ln(x)) = 1/x, and an interesting side affect is that d/dx((d/dx(n^x)/n^x)) = 1/x
you can do it by definition of the derivative. solve to
e^x * lim (e^h-1)/h and then using the series expansion of e^h we can see the limit goes to 1. No circular argument by using the series expansion as it can be found by an infinite binomial expansion of it's definition of
Sal, I luv yu dearly, but for the first time I must disagree. At ~4:30 you use d/dx e^x=e^x as part of your proof that d/dx e^x= e^x. You can't have your thesis as part of your proof, its circular. So the statement might be right but the route you used is technically fallacious. Perhaps I am mistaken, if so plz contact me. I would also be interested if there's a proof absent the circularity. If not the statement might be improvable which only serves to make it more fascinating!
He does it when he uses the chain rule, derivitive of the inside is e^x which becomes e^x.... I think. Plz correct me if Im misreading, Id like to get this proof.
No, the derivative on the inside was rendered as d/dx e^x, showing that the derivative had not yet been proven. So, he let that remain. He then completed the chain rule by multiplying d/dx e^x by the derivative of ln (x). We know that d/dx ln(e^x)=1 because ln(e^x)=x and d/dx = 1. So we end up with (1/e^x)(d/dx e^x)=1. Multiply both sides by e^x and there you have it.
haha dude, 4:30 is when he writes his end result if u look about 30=40 seconds earlier and you will see.. d/dx(e^x*(1/(e^x)=1 ... this statement he clearly derived from his last video which stated that... d/dx(lnx)=1/x ... then he simply used the chain rule.. there was no rewriting and definitely no stating and assuming that d/dx(e^x) is equal to e^x and if that is not enough for you then u can go look at his newer video of the proof that he made because of all the hate and claims of circularity
but you have to use the fact of that the derivative of e^x is e^x to prove that the derivative of lnx is 1/x so how can you use the proof of the derivative of lnx to prove the derivative of e^x
I finally understood the one in red once i remembered that it has to be equal to something...namely "y". It should say d/dx[y]=d/dx[e^x] then when you take the nat. log of both sides it becomes d/dx[Ln(y)]=d/dx[Ln(e^x)] Then: (1/y)dy/dx=d/dx [x] Then the right side becomes 1 and then multiply both sides by Y... Y=e^x therefore d/dx[e^x]=e^x
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n], then in order for the assertion
[(e^x)'=e^x] to be defined, one must first prove the existence of
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n].
But if one proves the existence of this limit, for example by proving it is equal to
1 + 1 + 1/2! + 1/3! +. . .,
then the power series for e^x follows directly (at least for the real case); then you get the derivative of e^x from the power series, making the proof in the video redundant.
I believe there may be a problem with this proof. You are assuming the existence of
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n].
Was this proved in another of your lectures? (Of course you cannot use l'hopital's rule toward this end because that would necessitate knowing the derivative of e^x in the first place!)
And also, even if you assume the existence of the limit, in order to interchange the power function and the limit, you must prove that the latter is continuous. I agree that this would be overkill and should be hand-waived in first year calculus classes anyway :-) I liked the presentation too, very well done.
oh now thats smthings i didnt know!i thought wer suppose to solve it like how we solve other composite functions.thnx alot for the help,i appreciate it.
@khanacademy wont we have to use the chain rule in this case?????
d/dx e^(ln x) = e^(ln x) * 1/x ..............please answer. i have the exam in 3 days and im totally depending on your videos cuz this is the first time i understood the concept. Thanks a lot :)
At the step when you used the chain rule, it was assumed that the derivative of e^x exists (when you wrote d/dx e^x). How do you show the derivative of e^x exists?
i now this , i have problems taking out this derivatives e^2x=??? or e^2x^2=??? i know this are harder ones, but they came in my first 2 exams and its coming in my final, and i dont know how to do this.
How do you integrate 5*4^(3x+2)
Michel0555 2 weeks ago
@Michel0555 rem the rule for differentiating a constant raised to a fn, say a^x that is a^x *lna. do the opp for the integrating part of it ie. a^x=a^x /lna,so in ur case it is 5*4^(3x+2) /ln(5*4)........
theoriginalcharlz18 3 days ago
What is the derivative of x/e^x ?
Fr33Styla00 2 weeks ago
@Fr33Styla00 f'x = -(x-1)*e^-x
stuntyannick2 2 weeks ago
@stuntyannick2 Check ur ans bcuz that looks like u have an x-1 inside the braces which is not correct,rem d/dx of x is 1 in this case -1 so u just multiply this by x=-x and multiply by e^x thus you have -xe^-x or -x/e^x.
theoriginalcharlz18 3 days ago
@Fr33Styla00 -xe^-x
theoriginalcharlz18 3 days ago
Comment removed
therealjordiano 1 month ago
@jcarnt I don't see anywhere where he does that...
imperfectlego 2 months ago
@imperfectlego Around 2:50. When he uses the chain rule he takes the derivative of the inside function which is e^x.
TryptamineTea 1 month ago
Really? You proved the derivative of e^x by taking the derivative of e^x?
Don't say you didn't because you took it in respect to e^x because that's not a variable.
jcarnt 2 months ago
@PCGamerPortal Be careful, the definition you're thinking of is (1 to x) ∫ (1/t )dt ≡ ln(x) which is a definite integral, not the antiderivative.
GFauxPas 3 months ago
Comment removed
GFauxPas 3 months ago
ok, so i know what the derivative of e^x is, but how do i find the tangent line to xe^x at x=0?
TeenyOnesNursery 3 months ago
@TeenyOnesNursery the first step is to find the slope of your mystery line. Do you know how to find the slope?
GFauxPas 3 months ago
National e Day!
CobyB162 5 months ago
The same can be done with Euler's formula by assuming x:=iy and differentiating Euler's formula by x.
drrobertoboogie97 7 months ago
i love the way you love calculus. i agree. we should have a holiday to ponder this.
asskickerone 7 months ago
what about dy/dx of (2x^2-5x+2)e^-x ???
efcdk92 7 months ago
@efcdk92 (-2x^2+9x-7)e^-x
drrobertoboogie97 7 months ago
Comment removed
puschel2106 8 months ago
This has been flagged as spam show
e^x = 10^(0.43429x)
anticorncob6 8 months ago
Forman6 11 months ago
@Forman6 hmm I see what you are saying...nice proof. Yet mine still works. It does rely on the prior assertion/proof (see another video by khanacademy-proof of derivative of ln(x)). Basically I am using the knowledge that d/dx(ln(x))=1/x (which by the way is almost the techincal definition of e. e's most basic definition is that the area under 1/x from 1 to e=1--the other definitions...i.e. lim (1+1/n)^n are all derived from this definition) It is still a rigorous proof just (f(x+h)-f(x))/h
BarbierNicholas 11 months ago
@Forman6 hmm I see what you are saying...nice proof. Yet mine still works. It does rely on the prior assertion/proof (see another video by khanacademy-proof of derivative of ln(x)). Basically I am using the knowledge that d/dx(ln(x))=1/x (which by the way is almost the techincal definition of e. e's most basic definition is that the area under 1/x from 1 to e=1--the other definitions...i.e. lim (1+1/n)^n are all derived from this definition) It is still a rigorous proof just not (f(x+h)-f(x))/h
BarbierNicholas 11 months ago
@BarbierNicholas yeah I liked yours.
its much simpler!
and we did it in class today!
Aren't proofs just gorgeous?
thats why i'm a math major!
and sorry if i mispell so much but i not english major anyways.
Forman6 11 months ago
@Forman6 Cool. that's awesome--being a math major. Where do you go?
I love proofs so much. I guess it is the fact that when something is proved (by definition) it is ABSOLUTELY true.
Unlike science where you match a model to fit observation, with math the numbers are self-consistent. The beauty found in mathematics (even though we invented it!) transcends anything i have ever seen.
BarbierNicholas 11 months ago
Comment removed
Forman6 11 months ago
I am not a mathematician. Still, there is something unsatisfying about this proof. I'm certainly not contesting it, it's just that if I were Euhler or Newton or whoever, wouldn't I have figured out what d/dx(e^x) was before I went to work on d/dx(ln(e^x))?
Eh, maybe not. Anyway, your videos are, as always, incredibly useful and well-explained. Thanks for doing this.
cepson 11 months ago
@cepson yeah.
its not a real hardcore proof.
the real proof is by limit definition.
as h approaches 0 of (e^(x+h)-e^x)/h
Forman6 11 months ago
@cepson correction i meant by definition of a derivative
Forman6 11 months ago
I like my own method. Using the already proved definition that d/dx(ln(x))=1/x you can show:
e^x=y, x=lny
d/dy(x)=d/dy(lny)
dx/dy=1/y
dy/dx=y, using orginal definition that e^x=y you substitute
and voila! dy/dx=e^x
BarbierNicholas 11 months ago
@BarbierNicholas thats not a proof.
its just a nice way of showing e^x is e^x when you already know the derivative.
the real proof you are unknown of solution so real proof is by limit definition.
(e^(x+h) - e^x)/h and the limit of h approaches infinity and you get your derivative of e^x.
which is e^x.
try it.
Forman6 11 months ago
Comment removed
TheRealMarauder 1 year ago
There was a math party, and all the functions were invited; the exponential function was alone in the corner, so the sinx came to it and said:
- Why are you alone? Come and integrate with us.
The e^x said:
- What for? It would be the same, anyway...
BlackDK18 1 year ago
u stutter a little bit...
magnetmixer 1 year ago
What would the function e^x look like on a graph?
MarvelsofaLifetime 1 year ago
@MarvelsofaLifetime
It'a exponent funktion. Looks verry roughly like 2^x.
Try searching in google for a better result.
Hellsslave666 1 year ago
@khanacademy I am doing calculus hw now and have been looking online for like an hour to find a description of why the derivative of e^x is e^x (and more importantly why it seems to be more specifically like if y=e^x, y'=((d/dx)x)(e^x)). Your video has been helpful, but is confusing at one point... when you multiply both sides by e^x, you get (d/dx)(e^x) = e^x. Why do you not multiply the (d/dx)(e^x) by e^x and get e^x(d/dx)(e^x) = e^x? Without doing this you get a nice proof but like.. huh?
Sephiro12 1 year ago
You can on forgetting to use the constants in your videos... shouldn't the question be "d/dx(ae^(bx)) = ?"
fewoifhiu3hfklew 1 year ago
My apologies to Sal. I posted a complaint about an error in his talk on the derivative of e^x (the first video). I misread what he put on the board (a product as an equality). My bad! You were right!
prubeyou1 1 year ago
i like toprove it doing the easy way with a power series
dannyboy12357 1 year ago
e^(-x) worries me
thomasking55 1 year ago
ah new comment system sorry for the triple post
Svenskivsk 1 year ago
sorry 2/7
Svenskivsk 1 year ago
sorry 2/7
Svenskivsk 1 year ago
sorry 2/7
Svenskivsk 1 year ago
2/17 of every year is now e-day
Svenskivsk 1 year ago
You mentioned taking a holdiay to ponder the magic of "e". I think there already is one: Feburary 7. (2.7)
It's kind of like pi day (March 14th or 3.14)
agricolaterrae 1 year ago
Great video Sal btw!
Johnedw2 1 year ago 2
It's a little misleading that e^x dervitive is e^x, it is true, but if we expand it a little bit, d/dx(n^x) = ln(n) * n^x where if n = e then ln(e) = 1 so ln(e) * e^x = 1 * e^x. The reality of exponential functions is that they are growing very rapidly. Another interesting reality is that d/dx(n^x) / n^x = ln(n)
Johnedw2 1 year ago 2
You can verify this by going to google and using the literal method of diffrentiation ((3^(2.000001) - 3^(2.0000001))/ (3.000001 - 3.0000001))/(3^2) will yield you ln(3)
You can use the same method to prove that d/dx(ln(x)) = 1/x, and an interesting side affect is that d/dx((d/dx(n^x)/n^x)) = 1/x
Johnedw2 1 year ago 2
My teacher gave me e^ax :( stuck
RainyFeb18th 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
If you are going to proov anything here, please use the definition of the derivative and do it from there. Stop with your circular crap.
just in case:
f'(x)=(f(x+h)-f(x))/h.
Arkantosi 2 years ago
you can do it by definition of the derivative. solve to
e^x * lim (e^h-1)/h and then using the series expansion of e^h we can see the limit goes to 1. No circular argument by using the series expansion as it can be found by an infinite binomial expansion of it's definition of
e^x = (lim n->inf) (1+x/n)^n
gremlinextreme101 2 years ago
Sal redid this video and reposted under the title "Proofs of Derivatives of Ln(x) and e^x" - High quality
woodenjaw 2 years ago
Sal, I luv yu dearly, but for the first time I must disagree. At ~4:30 you use d/dx e^x=e^x as part of your proof that d/dx e^x= e^x. You can't have your thesis as part of your proof, its circular. So the statement might be right but the route you used is technically fallacious. Perhaps I am mistaken, if so plz contact me. I would also be interested if there's a proof absent the circularity. If not the statement might be improvable which only serves to make it more fascinating!
madscirat 2 years ago
Yes, he did use e^x in the proof, but he did NOT use d/dx e^x=e^x in the proof. That was the end result, which is what is supposed to happen.
Elorviat 2 years ago
He does it when he uses the chain rule, derivitive of the inside is e^x which becomes e^x.... I think. Plz correct me if Im misreading, Id like to get this proof.
madscirat 2 years ago
No, the derivative on the inside was rendered as d/dx e^x, showing that the derivative had not yet been proven. So, he let that remain. He then completed the chain rule by multiplying d/dx e^x by the derivative of ln (x). We know that d/dx ln(e^x)=1 because ln(e^x)=x and d/dx = 1. So we end up with (1/e^x)(d/dx e^x)=1. Multiply both sides by e^x and there you have it.
Elorviat 2 years ago
haha dude, 4:30 is when he writes his end result if u look about 30=40 seconds earlier and you will see.. d/dx(e^x*(1/(e^x)=1 ... this statement he clearly derived from his last video which stated that... d/dx(lnx)=1/x ... then he simply used the chain rule.. there was no rewriting and definitely no stating and assuming that d/dx(e^x) is equal to e^x and if that is not enough for you then u can go look at his newer video of the proof that he made because of all the hate and claims of circularity
ichinarukurumaki 2 years ago
love the begging... Mr. Stutter
trevorbark 2 years ago
but you have to use the fact of that the derivative of e^x is e^x to prove that the derivative of lnx is 1/x so how can you use the proof of the derivative of lnx to prove the derivative of e^x
S1CKDRIFT3R 2 years ago
maybe february 7th can be 'e' day
ww1313 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
that was a pretty bad proof
Chippy7070 2 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
It was easy to me.
cressilia 2 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
and I'm in 6th grade.
cressilia 2 years ago
I never said it was a hard proof, just a bad one. No wonder you're in the 6th grade.....you should go back to 2nd grade and learn to read
Chippy7070 2 years ago 2
I finally understood the one in red once i remembered that it has to be equal to something...namely "y". It should say d/dx[y]=d/dx[e^x] then when you take the nat. log of both sides it becomes d/dx[Ln(y)]=d/dx[Ln(e^x)] Then: (1/y)dy/dx=d/dx [x] Then the right side becomes 1 and then multiply both sides by Y... Y=e^x therefore d/dx[e^x]=e^x
thebiggerhammer 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
d(e^x * 1\e^x)\dx = 0, but not 1.
your Proof is for Fools
uHkBu 2 years ago
(de^x/dx) *(1/e^x) not d(e^x * 1\e^x)\dx mate!
tampiwa 2 years ago
That having been said, I enjoyed the video, which was very clear, well done, and shows how "it all fits together."
cwldoc 2 years ago 2
If one defines e as
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n], then in order for the assertion
[(e^x)'=e^x] to be defined, one must first prove the existence of
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n].
But if one proves the existence of this limit, for example by proving it is equal to
1 + 1 + 1/2! + 1/3! +. . .,
then the power series for e^x follows directly (at least for the real case); then you get the derivative of e^x from the power series, making the proof in the video redundant.
cwldoc 2 years ago
I believe there may be a problem with this proof. You are assuming the existence of
lim n-> infinity [(1 + 1/n)^n].
Was this proved in another of your lectures? (Of course you cannot use l'hopital's rule toward this end because that would necessitate knowing the derivative of e^x in the first place!)
cwldoc 2 years ago
And also, even if you assume the existence of the limit, in order to interchange the power function and the limit, you must prove that the latter is continuous. I agree that this would be overkill and should be hand-waived in first year calculus classes anyway :-) I liked the presentation too, very well done.
zsyed12345678 2 years ago
Awesome ^_^
Dirty420South 2 years ago
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t3r3nlil 3 years ago
what is the derivative of e^lnx :S ? i have an exam in 2 dayz and its coming!
pinkcap 3 years ago
e^(ln x) = x (although you have to restrict the domain to x>0 since you can't take the ln of 0 or a negative number). the derivative of x is just 1.
khanacademy 3 years ago
oh now thats smthings i didnt know!i thought wer suppose to solve it like how we solve other composite functions.thnx alot for the help,i appreciate it.
pinkcap 3 years ago
@khanacademy wont we have to use the chain rule in this case?????
d/dx e^(ln x) = e^(ln x) * 1/x ..............please answer. i have the exam in 3 days and im totally depending on your videos cuz this is the first time i understood the concept. Thanks a lot :)
IndiaJacob 1 year ago
@pinkcap De Derrivative of e^Lnx with respect to x is 1.
RobertoEmilioRomero 10 months ago
the first 5 seconds were epic
Patsan120 3 years ago 36
lol
MelloMushroom91 2 years ago
At the step when you used the chain rule, it was assumed that the derivative of e^x exists (when you wrote d/dx e^x). How do you show the derivative of e^x exists?
vonnegut85 3 years ago
It's a continuous function, therefore it should have a derivative (although there are rare exceptions).
clerlic 3 years ago
i now this , i have problems taking out this derivatives e^2x=??? or e^2x^2=??? i know this are harder ones, but they came in my first 2 exams and its coming in my final, and i dont know how to do this.
prcrazy12345 3 years ago
if I can say something about it i would suggest with the first rule to rewrite e^2x as (e^x)*(e^x) and then use the product rule.
For the other problem (e^2x)^2=e^4x wich makes it also pretty straightforward
sikory 3 years ago
if it's e^((2x)^2) then using the chainrule is a simple way since the chainrule can be applied to pretty much anything to simplify it
sikory 3 years ago
One of my favorite methods to show that d/dx(e^x)=e^x is showing the derivative of the sum of x^n/n! as n ranges from 0 to infinity.
In other words d/dx(1 + x + x^2/2! + x^3/3!...) = 1 + x + x^2/2! + x^3/3!...
smartmusicfreak 3 years ago 6
good idea. Might make a video on that now that we've covered the maclaurin series of e^x (the series you cite)
khanacademy 3 years ago
However that would be a circular argument, since to construct the power series, you have already assumed that the derivative of e^x=e^x
sikory 3 years ago
@khanacademy
please can you give me the name of the software you used to plot the graphs (taylor polynomial lecture) thanks a lot
alisaffah 8 months ago
Could please tell me what screep capture you use, Thank you
Waranle 3 years ago