Also, how does one qualify 'use' of land? It is perfectly possible that what others perceive to be lack of use is not. I may choose to use my land as a nature reserve, allowing nature to do whatever it will with no interference. Is it correct that after (say) two decades I am at risk of having it appropriated in some way simply because somebody else either didn't recognise (or disapproved of) my use of the land?
Why do property rights outlive the individual that claims them? Surely if the individual claiming ownership dies then their property becomes unowned. Inheritance is a cultural norm, and as such I would think is simply an application of property rights. The individual could transfer ownership of any appropriate property before death. Simply assuming inheritance gives homesteading advantage to a preferred group.
@gekkonomics if inheritance doesnt exist, then if the person sells it and gives the money to his/her children/relatives then it would be kinda the same, of course, maybe the children or relatives wastes the money so if the person transferred the property rights then it's more "safe".
Excellent video. You've done a good job explaining why property rights aren't axiomatic, rather they are emergent norms that serve an end - they aren't the end themselves. This is something all libertarians should be very familiar with, because it's a point of contention that statists have with voluntary society... that property rights (as they see them) can be too "strict" in some circumstances.
Also, how does one qualify 'use' of land? It is perfectly possible that what others perceive to be lack of use is not. I may choose to use my land as a nature reserve, allowing nature to do whatever it will with no interference. Is it correct that after (say) two decades I am at risk of having it appropriated in some way simply because somebody else either didn't recognise (or disapproved of) my use of the land?
gekkonomics 3 months ago
@gekkonomics exactly.
MrBigEnchilada 3 months ago
Why do property rights outlive the individual that claims them? Surely if the individual claiming ownership dies then their property becomes unowned. Inheritance is a cultural norm, and as such I would think is simply an application of property rights. The individual could transfer ownership of any appropriate property before death. Simply assuming inheritance gives homesteading advantage to a preferred group.
gekkonomics 3 months ago
@gekkonomics if inheritance doesnt exist, then if the person sells it and gives the money to his/her children/relatives then it would be kinda the same, of course, maybe the children or relatives wastes the money so if the person transferred the property rights then it's more "safe".
MrBigEnchilada 3 months ago
Excellent video. You've done a good job explaining why property rights aren't axiomatic, rather they are emergent norms that serve an end - they aren't the end themselves. This is something all libertarians should be very familiar with, because it's a point of contention that statists have with voluntary society... that property rights (as they see them) can be too "strict" in some circumstances.
SpykerSpeed 3 months ago 6