Added: 1 year ago
From: ABCalc
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  • mate,, u really shouldn't mislead others when u know very well there is no such integration of one to infinity!! Teach the correct procedure,,,, use limits and a constant 't' so it can approach infinity. otherwise, well done.

  • thanx dude this helped a lot!

  • Thank you, this has been very useful and easy to understand.

  • TO MUCH CAMERA SHAKE! THIS ISNT THE BOURNE IDENTITY! YOU AINT MATT DAMON!

  • @corzocl YES HE IS GODDAMIT! YES HE IS! LEAVE HIM ALONE.

  • @DazzTyler THEN WHO AM I BECAUSE I THOUGHT I WAS MATT DAMON?!

  • @DazzTyler ?

  • you have an improper integral in ex. 2, and your just using infinity to plug in? I never learned any method for doing that...I always use the lim as t approaches infinity of the integral from 1 to t.... maybe you know something I don't?

  • just b/c we find the first derivative, that means it's decreasing?

  • @mpatt79 First derivative is -ve => gradient is negative => decreasing.

  • @mpatt79 Yep

  • Wow. Great vid

  • how do you know if its decreasing? i didn't get that part :o. you find that derivative and you plug something in?

  • @tadm123 you have to find the critical points. most likely problems will have a critical point that ends up being less than one (but not always.) then, take any point thats larger than that critical point and find what the derivative is at that point. if it's less than 1 you know that its decreasing on the entire interval (cp, infinity) and b/c you have no other critical points.

  • @tadm123 When the derivative is negative, the original function decreases.

    For the first problem, since the denominator was squared, it's always positive, so the derivative is negative wherever -2n is negative. Since n, in this case, is in the positive integers, -2n is always negative, so it's always decreasing in the domain.

  • GOOD VID! this really helped me out a lot since im trying to learn series to Laplace transforms in a about a week.

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