now, given that morality is dictated OBJECTIVELY... Is God for or anti-murder. In Mosaic law, he says he's against it. Yet, he breaks his own law, time and time again. I'm not trying to be an arrogant, asshole. But, I know the definition of "hypocricy". You can't teach that murder is wrong, by murdering. That's irrational. That's precicely why we don't have the death penalty here in Canada. I'm confused. Please provide some insight. Thanks.
@YoungMommy14 what the video is teaching is that Objective morality is determined by man not God, Gods law is based on his absolute authority that is in the Bible it self.
In fact in John chpt 5 Jesus emphasis is on Gods justice and Judgment on man.
God wrote the law for man the law was not written by God for God.
@thegodsplumbline yes, I hear you... and Thank you for your response. I really do appreciate it. I'm not even saying that you're wrong. For all I know, you're COMPLETELY right. I just find it strange that God would contradict his own values/ethics. Is there not a "better" way to teach a murderer that murder is wrong, rather than murdering him. In all of God's omniscience, he couldn't have concieved of a better method, than contradicting Mosiac Law? I don't get it...
@thegodsplumbline And furthermore... If morality is in fact, dictated objectively. Then what are we to believe? Is God's commands reflective of his will? Or are God's actions refective of his will? Does God WANT us to NOT murder because he commands it? Or does God want us TO murder because that's what he does? what are we supposed to do? what are we to believe? The commands or the actions?
@YoungMommy14 God gives us his law because he knows that man is inherently sinful, if Murder was not in the law it would not be evil nor a sin.
The Law is simply their to accuse us simply because we cannot keep it, if you study Romans 8 then you will fully understand what Gods law is.
To answer your question directly it has always been Gods will that man is to be obedient to him, but we cannot, this is why the law separates us from God
rendering it useless Jesus came to reconcile us to the father as he satisfied the law as he offered himself as a sacrificial offering because the law requires that in order payment be made for braking the law this must be done in Blood, so that we can have atonement (Forgiveness for sin).
@thegodsplumbline Indeed. Praise Yeshua. For he was without sin. And I am indeed a follower of Yeshua. Was the father without sin, though? Well... let's see... The father objectively dictated that murder was wrong. And then proved that murder was wrong by murdering everyone by way of drowning to death. We're not disputing that Jesus (Yeshua) was without sin. The question is, is the father without sin. Or is he in fact a demiurge? I anxiously await your reply. THANKS!
@YoungMommy14 you still do not understand the law of God, your responce is very common that can only mean that your an Athest, so you do an attempt to demonstrate the contradiction of God's commands "thou shalt not kill"
What you have to understand is that like English, Hebrew, the language in which most of the Old Testament was written, uses different words for intentional vs. unintentional killing. The verse translated "Thou shalt not kill" in the KJV translation, is translated "You shall not murder" in modern translations - because these translations represents the real meaning of the Hebrew text.
The Bible in Basic English translates the phrase, "Do not put anyone to death without cause." The Hebrew word used here is ratsach, which nearly always refers to intentional killing without cause (unless indicated otherwise by context). Hebrew law recognized accidental killing as not punishable. In fact, specific cities were designated as "cities of refuge," so that an unintentional killer could flee to escape retribution.
The Hebrew word for "kill" in this instance is not ratsach, but nakah, which can refer to either premeditated or unintentional killing, depending upon context. Other Hebrew words also can refer to killing.6-8 The punishment for murder was the death sentence. However, to be convicted, there needed to be at least two eyewitnesses. The Bible also prescribes that people have a right to defend themselves against attack and use deadly force if necessary.
To answer the question whether God breaks His own commandments, we need to determine if God committed murder (i.e., killed people without cause). The Bible is quite clear that God has killed people directly (the most prominent example being the flood) and indirectly (ordered peoples to be killed). If God ordered or participated in the killing of innocent people, then He would be guilty of murder. Let's look at two of the most prominent examples.
According to the Bible, God killed every human except Noah, his wife, his sons, and their wives in the flood. Were any of these people killed unjustly? The Bible says specifically that all people (except Noah and his family) had become corrupted. so here God did not violate his own commandments.
@thegodsplumbline Not only had all people become corrupted, but they were continually plotting evil!13 Is it possible that an entire culture can become corrupted? You bet! Recent history proves the point rather well. When the Nazis took over Germany before WWII, opposition was crushed and removed. When they began their purging of the undesirables (e.g., the Jews), virtually the entire society went along with the plan. So, the Bible indicates that no innocent people were killed in the flood.
you may ask What about when God ordered Joshua and his people to kill every man, woman and child in Canaan?14 What crime could be so great that entire populations of cities were designated for destruction? God told Moses that the nations that the Hebrew were replacing
@thegodsplumbline were wicked. How "wicked" were these people? The text tells us that they were burning their own sons and daughters in sacrifices to their gods.16 So we see that these people were not really innocent. For these reasons (and others17), God ordered the destruction of the peoples whom the Israelites dispossessed.
so really the commandment "Thou shalt not kill" is really not as general as the King James version would indicate. The commandment actually refers to premeditated, unjustified killing - murder. Although God ordered the extermination of entire cities, He did so in righteous judgment on a people whose corruption had led to extreme wickedness, including child sacrifice. Did God destroy the righteous along with the wicked?
@thegodsplumbline In an exchange with Abraham, God indicated that He would spare the wicked to save the righteous. He demonstrated this principle by saving righteous people from Sodom and Jericho prior to their destruction. The charge that God indiscriminately murdered people does not hold to to critical evaluation of the biblical texts. I hope that answers your question.
@thegodsplumbline you know what. I think you guys may be right after all. I think that I may have been subject to some "deception"... yet again. that's not rare... it happens to me all the time.
@thegodsplumbline I'm a Christian. Let me ask you a question, out of curiosity. I find this concept of obective vs subjective morality quite intriguing. In the Old Testament, God murdered essentially the entire world. All unborn fetus', babies, mentally challenged/invalids, people with no limbs, etc. And not nice, peaceful death either. It was by way of drowing, which is probably one of the worst, most unfortunate kinds of death imaginable. (continued)...
now, given that morality is dictated OBJECTIVELY... Is God for or anti-murder. In Mosaic law, he says he's against it. Yet, he breaks his own law, time and time again. I'm not trying to be an arrogant, asshole. But, I know the definition of "hypocricy". You can't teach that murder is wrong, by murdering. That's irrational. That's precicely why we don't have the death penalty here in Canada. I'm confused. Please provide some insight. Thanks.
YoungMommy14 6 months ago
@YoungMommy14 what the video is teaching is that Objective morality is determined by man not God, Gods law is based on his absolute authority that is in the Bible it self.
In fact in John chpt 5 Jesus emphasis is on Gods justice and Judgment on man.
God wrote the law for man the law was not written by God for God.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline yes, I hear you... and Thank you for your response. I really do appreciate it. I'm not even saying that you're wrong. For all I know, you're COMPLETELY right. I just find it strange that God would contradict his own values/ethics. Is there not a "better" way to teach a murderer that murder is wrong, rather than murdering him. In all of God's omniscience, he couldn't have concieved of a better method, than contradicting Mosiac Law? I don't get it...
YoungMommy14 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline And furthermore... If morality is in fact, dictated objectively. Then what are we to believe? Is God's commands reflective of his will? Or are God's actions refective of his will? Does God WANT us to NOT murder because he commands it? Or does God want us TO murder because that's what he does? what are we supposed to do? what are we to believe? The commands or the actions?
YoungMommy14 6 months ago
@YoungMommy14 God gives us his law because he knows that man is inherently sinful, if Murder was not in the law it would not be evil nor a sin.
The Law is simply their to accuse us simply because we cannot keep it, if you study Romans 8 then you will fully understand what Gods law is.
To answer your question directly it has always been Gods will that man is to be obedient to him, but we cannot, this is why the law separates us from God
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
rendering it useless Jesus came to reconcile us to the father as he satisfied the law as he offered himself as a sacrificial offering because the law requires that in order payment be made for braking the law this must be done in Blood, so that we can have atonement (Forgiveness for sin).
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline Indeed. Praise Yeshua. For he was without sin. And I am indeed a follower of Yeshua. Was the father without sin, though? Well... let's see... The father objectively dictated that murder was wrong. And then proved that murder was wrong by murdering everyone by way of drowning to death. We're not disputing that Jesus (Yeshua) was without sin. The question is, is the father without sin. Or is he in fact a demiurge? I anxiously await your reply. THANKS!
YoungMommy14 6 months ago
@YoungMommy14 you still do not understand the law of God, your responce is very common that can only mean that your an Athest, so you do an attempt to demonstrate the contradiction of God's commands "thou shalt not kill"
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
What you have to understand is that like English, Hebrew, the language in which most of the Old Testament was written, uses different words for intentional vs. unintentional killing. The verse translated "Thou shalt not kill" in the KJV translation, is translated "You shall not murder" in modern translations - because these translations represents the real meaning of the Hebrew text.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
The Bible in Basic English translates the phrase, "Do not put anyone to death without cause." The Hebrew word used here is ratsach, which nearly always refers to intentional killing without cause (unless indicated otherwise by context). Hebrew law recognized accidental killing as not punishable. In fact, specific cities were designated as "cities of refuge," so that an unintentional killer could flee to escape retribution.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
The Hebrew word for "kill" in this instance is not ratsach, but nakah, which can refer to either premeditated or unintentional killing, depending upon context. Other Hebrew words also can refer to killing.6-8 The punishment for murder was the death sentence. However, to be convicted, there needed to be at least two eyewitnesses. The Bible also prescribes that people have a right to defend themselves against attack and use deadly force if necessary.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
To answer the question whether God breaks His own commandments, we need to determine if God committed murder (i.e., killed people without cause). The Bible is quite clear that God has killed people directly (the most prominent example being the flood) and indirectly (ordered peoples to be killed). If God ordered or participated in the killing of innocent people, then He would be guilty of murder. Let's look at two of the most prominent examples.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
According to the Bible, God killed every human except Noah, his wife, his sons, and their wives in the flood. Were any of these people killed unjustly? The Bible says specifically that all people (except Noah and his family) had become corrupted. so here God did not violate his own commandments.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline Not only had all people become corrupted, but they were continually plotting evil!13 Is it possible that an entire culture can become corrupted? You bet! Recent history proves the point rather well. When the Nazis took over Germany before WWII, opposition was crushed and removed. When they began their purging of the undesirables (e.g., the Jews), virtually the entire society went along with the plan. So, the Bible indicates that no innocent people were killed in the flood.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
you may ask What about when God ordered Joshua and his people to kill every man, woman and child in Canaan?14 What crime could be so great that entire populations of cities were designated for destruction? God told Moses that the nations that the Hebrew were replacing
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline were wicked. How "wicked" were these people? The text tells us that they were burning their own sons and daughters in sacrifices to their gods.16 So we see that these people were not really innocent. For these reasons (and others17), God ordered the destruction of the peoples whom the Israelites dispossessed.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
so really the commandment "Thou shalt not kill" is really not as general as the King James version would indicate. The commandment actually refers to premeditated, unjustified killing - murder. Although God ordered the extermination of entire cities, He did so in righteous judgment on a people whose corruption had led to extreme wickedness, including child sacrifice. Did God destroy the righteous along with the wicked?
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline In an exchange with Abraham, God indicated that He would spare the wicked to save the righteous. He demonstrated this principle by saving righteous people from Sodom and Jericho prior to their destruction. The charge that God indiscriminately murdered people does not hold to to critical evaluation of the biblical texts. I hope that answers your question.
thegodsplumbline 6 months ago
@thegodsplumbline you know what. I think you guys may be right after all. I think that I may have been subject to some "deception"... yet again. that's not rare... it happens to me all the time.
YoungMommy14 6 months ago
Where do we buy the DVD?
BillyVeePersonal 8 months ago
@BillyVeePersonal you can buy the DVD from carylmatrisciana (.) com
thegodsplumbline 8 months ago
@thegodsplumbline should be released soon.
thegodsplumbline 8 months ago
@thegodsplumbline I'm a Christian. Let me ask you a question, out of curiosity. I find this concept of obective vs subjective morality quite intriguing. In the Old Testament, God murdered essentially the entire world. All unborn fetus', babies, mentally challenged/invalids, people with no limbs, etc. And not nice, peaceful death either. It was by way of drowing, which is probably one of the worst, most unfortunate kinds of death imaginable. (continued)...
YoungMommy14 6 months ago