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I'm hearing a hodgepodge of 16th c. modal cpt, late Baroque cpt and medieval. The progression b/d# (end of m7) to a/e (m8) instead of e sounds odd. Why do you answer the subject tonally instead of modally? And why so slow? If you want the subject to be that slow, then you should liven up the counterpoints so that the piece doesn't so chordal. My 2 cents. Tks for sharing.
wcbroccoli 7 months ago
@wcbroccoli You're right... this was one of my first tries.... but about tonal and modal: the problem is what mode is it? after Mattheson its phrygian, after scheibe mixoaeolian... that`s why I choose to avoid that... Thks for listening though...;-)
IldivoRenatello 7 months ago
@IldivoRenatello Maybe this will please you more... less stylistic problems...
IldivoRenatello 7 months ago
@IldivoRenatello I'd say phrygian. "Mixoaeolian"? The only mode I know that begins with the prefix "mixo" is mixolydian. Maybe you meant hypoaeolian, which is another possibility. But the name of the mode doesn't matter. What does matter is preserving the intervals of the subject while trying to stay within the diatonic system, at least for the 1st exposition. See how Bach handles the phrygian(?) chorale tune "Aus tiefer Not" in his organ chorale preludes BWV 686 and BWV 687.
wcbroccoli 7 months ago
@wcbroccoli sorry yes hypoaeolian.. sorry was such a stress yesterday......
yes now i know... i went through Marpurgs "abhandlung von der Fuge"... but this piece is, as I said, quite old.......
IldivoRenatello 7 months ago