Added: 3 years ago
From: tontitofrito
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  • Señor Jordan I have a question. Why you did not put an 'a' after the word va in your example here: Despues de ganar dinero, susana va de compras?

    I thought you will always put an 'a' when talking about going. What happened here? Thanks!

  • @siciliandragon16 Sometimes we have phrases that are just phrases... we learn them and use them because that's what they mean ;-)

    to go fishing --> ir de pesca

    ir de compras (ir de shopping) --> to go shopping

    ir de vacaciones --> to go on vacation

  • Thx dude u made spanish look so easy for me that next year i will do well in spanish 2 :D btw u get an A+ 100% :)

  • @1104Koolkat

    You're too kind!

  • How come its 'una mala nota'? I thought in spanish it was noun-adjective agreement so why isn't it 'una nota mala'?

  • @laurenblake2014

    Bueno and Malo can be used before and after nouns and there are times when other words can change the meaning of something by being placed in front of the noun instead of after it. But we won't get into that. Just recognize it as an exception. ;-)

  • whats on your shirt? my whole spanish class was trying to find out what it was? so what is it? :P

  • it's a lawn gnome.... it says "Lawn Gnome Crossing"

  • What if you want to say after i eat i go to school?

  • Después de comer, voy a la escuela.

  • You are a great teacher. Even an old guy like me can easily learn from you. Keep up the great work! Thanks. Mark R.

  • menos mal que naci en peru xD!

    el español es mas dificil que el ingles xD

    my english is very bad but i understand allxD

  • I really enjoyed this lesson. Can't wait to see some more. I've been teaching myself spanish for a couple years. It's nice to have many examples of both concepts (before and after.)

  • hey do you have any videos on how and when to use the subjuncitve form of a verb in a sentence?

  • it sounds kinda difficult :/

  • I don't understnad why you say antes de comer, yo pongo la mesa, why does that translate into before eating, i set the table. Shouldn't the speaking be antes de comiendo, yo pongo la mesa

  • Here's your answer: It just does. ;-)

    You can reason it out all you want. The best thing to do is simply accept that is the structure in Spanish. It doesn't have to make sense to us, because it makes sense to Spanish speakers.

    Who ever said that saying 'before eating' makes more sense than 'before to eat'?

    It's just the norm.

  • I don't understand why you don't conjugate a verb after saying antes de or despues de, woulnd't antes de hacer mean before to do( or make) is that just the norm in spanish; woudl you explain this more indepth as to why that makes sense.

  • Wow I have a spanish test tommarow, and you really helped a lot!!! Thanks a lot =P ( I live in canada) im guessing you live in mexico?

  • he lives in usa, didnt you read the comment before yours?

  • de donde tu eres?

  • Soy de Gringolandia (Los EEUU). ¿Y tú?

  • dude wtf.. gringolandia? america is a multiracial country

  • tranquilo.... es una broma.

  • It seems to depends on the region (wikipedia it) ,gringo does not necessarily mean race/white/European in most Spanish speaking countries(Argentina and Peru may be exceptions). And in the specific case of the word Gringolandia it means the United States.

  • glad to hear (or read) it!

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