Added: 3 years ago
From: NoWallsMinistry
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  • My claims come from research of history, those in and outside of the Jewish faith. It comes from archeology that is still being uncovered, from archeology that has already been uncovered. Scholars can only build off each others work, it would take too long to re-discover everything out for myself again.

  • My only question would be how do we know what a word actually means in the Bible? When you say X means this and not that, what are you relying on to make the claim?

  • Translating words from Greek or Hebrew to English. The study of a language will find that one word can mean many things.

  • True, but how does one arrive at a definative, or perhaps reasonable, conclusion as to what X in the Bible is given the multitude of definitions for a word (for those of Hebrew or Greek that is)?

  • Well... people who are much smarter than myself argue about word useage and come to conclusions based on their knowledge. Language changes very often though. So words that once meant this, could mean something totally different later. Languages don't stand by themselves, so most depend on what is known about the culture around the language.

  • "Languages don't stand by themselves, so most depend on what is known about the culture around the language."

    Is there any evidence that shows the early usage of these Hebrew words being translated to something else and not 'homosexuality'?

    Also, what of Lev 18:22? Qadesh isn't used there.

  • And I mean besides relying on what the experts tell us. That would simply be an appeal to authority.

  • I think I'm confused on the question...

  • To put it differently...

    Is what you know about the meaning of these words (words like Qadesh) coming directly from historical evidence about what it meant at the time these words were used or is it because you relied on the claims of experts? If the latter, what makes their claims valid (or at least more credible than those who claim otherwise)?

  • Thank you for this :-)

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