@KoalaBearWarrior Like Black Scholes, the rates are all expressed in continuous frequency. At T0, LN(130/100) ~ 26%. At T1, LN(134/100) ~= 29.2. To use 0.74*130, is to use discrete: 134/100 - 1 = 34%. FWIW, they reconcile with R(c) = k*LN(1+R(k)/k). In this case, case R(c) = 1*LN(1 + 34%) = 29.2%
I was thinking about the relationship between time and distance to default. It looks like the bigger the maturity, the bigger the distance to default (ceteris paribus). Does it make sense to assume that? However, this works only if the second term in the numerator is positive, so the price grows more than half of the variance.
and really irritated with a few comments over here..guys..we are getting such valuable education in youtube for free (thanks Mr.Harper).. we cannot be complaining
Mr.Harper's videos are supplements; we should not expect him to teach everything over here.
wow...what a clear explanation.. Mr.Harper, you are awesome.
I am learning finance on my own; have watched Paul Wilmott's lectures in you tube, Horward lectures.. but nothing is as clear, concise and understandable as your short 10 min videos.. thanks a lot
to medici 101: for an explanation of d1 learn how to find delta.
I am so impressed by this video. You managed to make intuitively understandable in 10 minutes a concept I didn't grasp through my whole time at b-school. Thanks!
at 4:00 you say the firm would have to drop by 26% before default. 0.74*130 = < 100 though, so I don't see why it should not bee a lot less than 26%
KoalaBearWarrior 1 week ago
@KoalaBearWarrior Like Black Scholes, the rates are all expressed in continuous frequency. At T0, LN(130/100) ~ 26%. At T1, LN(134/100) ~= 29.2. To use 0.74*130, is to use discrete: 134/100 - 1 = 34%. FWIW, they reconcile with R(c) = k*LN(1+R(k)/k). In this case, case R(c) = 1*LN(1 + 34%) = 29.2%
bionicturtledotcom 1 week ago
I was thinking about the relationship between time and distance to default. It looks like the bigger the maturity, the bigger the distance to default (ceteris paribus). Does it make sense to assume that? However, this works only if the second term in the numerator is positive, so the price grows more than half of the variance.
Am I correct?
marchesedesade89 2 months ago
amazing thank you !!! life saver as usual
atapojha 4 months ago
and really irritated with a few comments over here..guys..we are getting such valuable education in youtube for free (thanks Mr.Harper).. we cannot be complaining
Mr.Harper's videos are supplements; we should not expect him to teach everything over here.
VenVig 4 months ago
wow...what a clear explanation.. Mr.Harper, you are awesome.
I am learning finance on my own; have watched Paul Wilmott's lectures in you tube, Horward lectures.. but nothing is as clear, concise and understandable as your short 10 min videos.. thanks a lot
VenVig 4 months ago
wow amazing clarity on d2. i pondered through my notes without much clarity but this video just connected the dots. thanks for the great vid!
kigs12 1 year ago
what is blackshole model?you should have explained it first
khanpreston1 1 year ago
i wish i can find a video explaining d1 as well ... this video was really good ... cheers
euastus 1 year ago
thank you, really helpful
Afsoon2009 2 years ago
Thanks alot :)
Watefa 2 years ago
I agree, he did in a few minutes what one of my professors tried to do in several weeks and accomplished more. :)
UWBizKid 2 years ago
to medici 101: for an explanation of d1 learn how to find delta.
I am so impressed by this video. You managed to make intuitively understandable in 10 minutes a concept I didn't grasp through my whole time at b-school. Thanks!
shrivti1 3 years ago
Explain d1!
medici101 3 years ago