Added: 1 year ago
From: forest51690
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  • you said that the rapists children dont get punished because they didn't do the crime,they did nothing wrong,they where innocent.ofcourse this is fair.in the bible innocent people are punished for the crimes/actions of others.such as when ham saw noah naked(which is not really a crime or a terrible thing) and noah then curses ham's son,canaan.canaan has done nothing wrong.how is this fair?

  • @miguelthemexican99

    You shouldn't say that the other person is punished for one person's sin, but rather that the one person's sin harms the other person. For example, if one person commits the sin of stealing, another person would get harmed by it. Same with murder, etc.

  • @forest51690 i don't understand your point. what do you mean?

  • @miguelthemexican99 I guess I went off on a tangent. I missed your last sentence which was "How is this fair?" Well it's just the way things work. It's not fair. We're born into a ruined world with sin affecting us from every angle. We get hurt and we hurt in turn. It's not fair. But one day Jesus will come back and judge the world—every man for what he has done. Then things will be fair again.

  • @forest51690 why didn't god intervene to stop the innocent canaan from getting cursed? also where is the bible does it prohibit rape?.rape is condoned in the bible."... Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves."

    (Numbers 31:7-18 NLT) why would god allow innocent women to be raped?

  • @miguelthemexican99 The Bible prohibits sex outside of marriage, so obviously rape falls into that category. (The law also treats rape differently in case you're wondering) Look it up, but keep in mind that the law was given to the ancient Hebrew people.

    In the passage you give, the virgin women were to be taken as wives or concubines. It wasn't like today.

  • @forest51690 husbands rape there wives,isn't that a loophole? does the bible specifically prohibit rape?

    in the passage i gave god clearly approves of innocent virgin women to be raped,how could a loving god do something so evil? you said that the women where to be taken as wives or concubines,why would a loving god allow innocent virgin women to be wives and concubines against there will? also you didn't answer my question about why the innocent canaan was cursed.

  • @miguelthemexican99 No, as far as I know, the OT law doesn't prohibit husbands from forcing their wives to sleep with them.

  • @miguelthemexican99 the wives were taken, but I doubt it was against their will. First of all, it's better to die from the sword than to die of hunger. (Lamentations 4:9) Second, it's better to live than to die. (Eccesiastes 9:4) God didn't do anything heinous here. Do you know why he commanded the Israelites to kill all the men and married women in the first place?

  • @forest51690 how do you know it wasn't against there will? how do you know that they would die of hunger?

  • @miguelthemexican99 I'm just assuming that it is based on what I know of that time. It was the men who worked during the day and I guess the women would not have known how to farm and hunt, etc. And the women left were virgins, unmarried, so they were probably all under 15, from what I've heard. Also, all of their fathers, brothers, uncles, and any other people they knew were probably dead.

  • @forest51690 but what is your assumptions are incorrect? that means that some women will forced into a marriage against there will.that is very wrong.

  • @miguelthemexican99, the law says that "the man cannot divorce the woman for as long as he lives", but it says nothing about the woman divorcing the man. I think it was unspoken that the woman definitely did not have to marry him.

  • @forest51690 well if the women did not have to marry them what would be there fate? would they be there sex slaves? .the exact quote is " Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves."

  • @miguelthemexican99, oh my bad. I got confused between my conversations. I mistakenly thought we were talking about something else. So just ignore my last comment.

    I'm not sure what to say then. Sure some might have been forced into marriage. Or maybe not. Maybe they didn't ever force a woman into a marriage, because they thought it was wrong. There are a lot of things that we don't know about this situation. But I know that God is fair from the rest of the Old Testament, so I trust what he did

  • @forest51690 When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB). Is that fair?

  • @miguelthemexican99, the correct translation is not "if the slave survives a day or two" but "if the slave recovers after a day or two" Anyways, this is a hard verse to understand. The question is, is the slave actually the property of his owner, according to that time period?

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