Added: 2 years ago
From: loststates
Views: 4,862
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  • It was more like Mexico wanted the north to be settled since it was sparse in population and wanted to convert Texas from a dangerous liability to a safe and civilized asset but lacked any means of doing so, and they allowed the American and German immigrants to do so....way to leave that part out.....and the rest is History!

  • Actually in the 1840s Texas belonged to Mexico!

  • @Jonesdude666 Well, the notion of a German sprachraum did of course exist, and as such a notion of a Germany, but there was no political entity called Germany, and hence Germany did not exist. Like I wrote earlier, and as you yourself even stated. Austria was never a part of a German nation, only as a part of the loose confederation of the Holy Roman Empire, and in the Nazi era (Anschluss). Prussia does not exist any longer, and even to this day Bavarians see themselves as separate from Germany.

  • There was no Germany in the 1840's, though. The country was only unified in 1871 after the Franco-Prussian war.

  • @youoptigan Da it was awsome Prussia >:3 he was cool till 1931 to me

  • @youoptigan nope. Germany existed, but not as a single entity. Germany was several states. Most significant: Prussia, Austria, Bavaria.

  • this is so false

  • @SuperRphl

    Pick up a book sometime...

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