any retarded idiot who insults polygamists is an idiot!
how dare you insult people for having different beliefs than you! talk about idiots!
seriously if God let human beings have free will then don´t mess up with the freedom of people and as far as I know polygamist wives are not stupid they are married that way because they are happy!!!
this is a bible verse quoted directly from Jesus, wow,,,,
Matthew 22: 24-34, its from Jesus himself, we know he is truth,,, who do u believe in now,, Emmanuel (Jesus) or someone else that says something different than what the only begotton Son says,, John 3:16
BOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO you have no clue no solid points to argue. you know umm you know you are ummm ignorant! you know umm go learn your scriptures you know ummm stupid!
WHAT!? dis guy is pure ignorant he doesn't even know the years and names and shit. daaaawwg you are a dumb ass! whats the difference between a couple hundred years of when a church was built? huh? you don't know shit!................ ya digggggggg!
..Some OLd Tes. prophets also practiced incest (Gen. 19:32-38) as well as polygamy but that doesn't mean God approved of either practice..ANYONE including mormons can take Biblical verses to justify ANYTHING: immorality (polygamy), racism against blacks, baptizing dead people and a profane doctrine called "blood atonement"..this why we need to be in TRUE-believing christian church so Biblical verses are interpreted CORRECTLY whether literally, figuratively or within an historical context.
Warren Jeffs is not LDS or as you call "Mormon". Need to get your facts straight. Its like calling a Catholic a Jew just because they both read the Old Testament!
"Warren Jeffs is not LDS or as you call "Mormon". "
You;re right, but the FLDS believes it's following the revelation regarding polygamy because the LDS were forced to renounce it, bowing to the pressures and giving up God's law in favor of man's law.
Read the Bible, some of greatest prophets such as Abraham had more than one wife. God himself arranged for David to have more than one wife. So don't pull an uneducated double standard on me!
Nice try, but since D&C 132 clearly lays out that exaltation requires polyamy and temple marriage as a "new and everlasting covenant," the LDS aren't even following their own texts. Everlasting doesn't mean 47 years, does it?
And since this came up before, I thought about it a bit. God didn't tell anyone to take all of those wives and concubines because that was his ideal; it was more of a welfare service. Where else would they all have gone?
Nice try liar, polygamy is not required but marriage is required. I require you moparmonster1965 to quote the exact scripture that says polygamy is required for "exaltation ".
"The JOD deservedly ranks as one of the standrad works of the Chursh, and every rightminded Saint will certainly welcome with joy every Number as it comes froth from the press as an additional reflector of "light that shines from Zion hill." (preface of JOD, volume 8)
It's obviously not required reading, however, because it's 27 volumes.
"I thought about it a bit." - Maybe you should have read the Bible!
2 Samuel Chapter 12
7. And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; 8 And I gave thee thy masters house, and thy masters wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.
You're referring to the Bible that you don't believe is accurate and correct, right?
It was a package deal and again, a form or welfare or social service. God didn't command him to take a whole bunch of wives; it's better that they were given to him to take care of because they would've otherwise died. That's different from being ordered to assemble a large harem.
"unlike the Bible, which passed through generations of copyists, translators, and corrupt religionists who tampered with the text, the BOM came from writer to reader in just one inspired step of translation." (Ensign, Jan 1992, p 5)
Since the Ensign is comissioned, approved, authorized, printed, and distributed by the church, it is indeed the church's opinion. And since Jesus is at the head of the church, it's his opinion.
The Bible HAS been passed through the generations and copied and translated over and over. This is a fact that is known the world over. It is also well known that there are many versions of the Bible (some contain books that others don't). What is the error about Mormons acknowleging these facts. This is why the last 12 verses of the Book of Mark where added by scribes and are not in the earliest manuscipts. This is a fact that is well known by real Bible scolars the world over. tip iceburg.
Even more so than the prophet who restored the church, Joseph Smith?
And if the KJV is the most correct version, why doesn't the church issue a completely correct version? Oh wait, it contains a "fulness of the Gospel," according to page 5.
The Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the Gospel. Testify means "three witnesses" - The Old Testament, New Testament, and Book of Mormon are the three witnesses that testify of the truth of the Gospel. All three support each other and testify to the other's truth. Gods words never end and new scripture is the sign of a true church as it always has in the past and will in the future.
David taking them on as a whole is far different from being told to gather up a bunch of wives. You're right, God did arrange it, but if he didn't, they would've likely died or been sold into slavery. It's not the Biblical ideal, but it was a situation that had to dealt with.
LOL, this jury rigged scenario you are crafting in your own mindmoparmonster1965 to change the Bible to the way you want it to be is what creates apostacy.
This is how apostacy starts when men like you moparmonster1965 who are not prophets or Apostles interpret and change the meaning of the Bible. That is what occured when the pagan Emperor Constantine and other men formulated the Nicene Creed to conform to popular Platonic Greek Philosophy and the political ambitions of Constantine. However, the Bible actually clearly states Jesus Christ and God the Father are separate and distinct beings. Nicene Creed is accepted as scripture!?!?
Let's see, your standard for changing the Bible allows for such when it's a prophet? Okay, then, how many false prophesies make a false prophet? Since JS hasn't made one that came true, he's in the right zip code. And by that same standard, why don't use use the JST in its entirety?
You've gone far to prove that you don't believe in the Bible. Fair enough, but why is it part of your scripture?
That God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate is not in the Bible.
Several of these passages can most certainly be interpreted that way, but given the church's track record on being correct, it can't be taken at its word.
I also find some problems with your citations:
John 14:38: there is no 38th verse; it's the 28th
John 3:19: what you quoted there isn't in that verse
John 17:3: this is reworded from my quad, text is added
I don't know what version you're using or you're being deceitful, but I have a 1996 quad.
John 5: 19 - Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
John 14: 28 - Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I ago unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
Please remember moparmonster the scriptures where presented by Arius and Athanasius to the Council of Nicene in the early 300's A.D. the KJV of the Bible did not exist . There are variations and changes due to scribes and kings and many ofther translations. The Bible we know today did not exist until the very late 300s A.D. and early 400s A.D. Until then there where only indiviual books floating around and nobody argeed which books to accept and reject.
2. "The Father is in me and I in the Father." (John 10:38)
2. "He who has seen me has seen the Father." (John 14:9)
These are all metaphors from John that ment God and Jesus Christ are one in purpose and mind. This is confirmed in John 17 where church members are to be one in mind like God and Christ.
11 "And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be bone, as we are." (Note "are" in italics - added by scribes)
21 "That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me."
22 "And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
23 "I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me."
Therefore, God and Christ are one in purpose and mind.
I have not interpreted anything in my own way, it is explicitly stated what is ment by God and Jesus Christ are one in John 17. John 17 states that God and Jesus Christ are one in mind and purpose and the Christian Church saints are told to be one on mind and purpose also.
And yet you still separate them into distinct beings based on the word of JS alone in his account of the Furst Vision.
You're aware that the currect, accepted version wasn't written in his own hand, right? In fact, the version that was featured a "Jewish Minister (whatever the hell that's supposed to be)" named Joshua.
Your words are correct but your interpretation is based on making the Bible contents conform to Mormon doctrine.
The history of the the Christian church before the Nicene Creed shows that most of the Christian fathers viewed God and Christ as separate and distinct beings. It was changed by Constantine to conform with Platonic Greek Philosophy to unify his empire. The Bible has far more scripture that clear states Jesus Christ is not God. Its the pure truth and it is very profound and meaningful.
Also, moparmonster1965 did you ever notice that the word "is" in the phase "God is Spirit" is in italics in the Bible. That is to let the educated reader know that the word "is" was added by scribes and is not in the earliest Greek manuscripts (there are no original Bible manuscripts by the way). So the entire belief God as being only a Spirit is based on a word that in not even in the oldest Bible manuscripts. The apostacy house of cards starts to fall down!!
"It was a package deal and again, a form or welfare or social service."
This is a really silly statement, David could have supported them he didn't have to wed them all to support them in a welfare system. The point is is that David, Abraham ,etc etc. had multiple wives. You don't want to directly admit it because it supports LDS doctrine. You want to deny whats clear in the bible to satify your own religious arrogance.
Plural marriage is not essential to salvation or exaltation. Nephi and his people were denied the power to have more than one wife and yet they could gain every blessing in eternity that the Lord ever offered to any people. In our day, the Lord summarized by revelation the whole doctrine of exaltation and predicated it upon the marriage of one man to one woman. (D. & C. 132:1-28.)
Can you then tell me the reason that the old D&C 101 condemned polygamy while the church was actively practicing it? And why was it then removed when section 132 was added?
How does that convey honesty and integrity?
And why did BY say this: "Now if any of you will deny the plurality of wives, and continue to do so, I promise that you will be damned." (Journal of Discourses, Vol. 3, p. 266).
Polygamy was not permitted in the Book of Mormon times and polygamy was permitted in the many periods in the Bible which I have proven. Polygamy is permitted by God at certain times and it is usually at times to preserve God's people - this was told to me by a Rabbi at askmoses website. Therefore, everything that Mormons do and belive is traced back to the Bible and is the restorartion of all things.
So again moparmonster1965 , why are you saying that the verses in the Bible that say polygamy was allowed and arranged by God are false scriptures but criticize Mormon for believeing the Bible is correct?
Polygamists deserve respect!!!
any retarded idiot who insults polygamists is an idiot!
how dare you insult people for having different beliefs than you! talk about idiots!
seriously if God let human beings have free will then don´t mess up with the freedom of people and as far as I know polygamist wives are not stupid they are married that way because they are happy!!!
RESPECT THEM OR DON´T SAY ANYTIHNG!!!
manuel64128 2 years ago
this is a bible verse quoted directly from Jesus, wow,,,,
Matthew 22: 24-34, its from Jesus himself, we know he is truth,,, who do u believe in now,, Emmanuel (Jesus) or someone else that says something different than what the only begotton Son says,, John 3:16
tnfellow 2 years ago
BOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO you have no clue no solid points to argue. you know umm you know you are ummm ignorant! you know umm go learn your scriptures you know ummm stupid!
m16onm1c 2 years ago
WHAT!? dis guy is pure ignorant he doesn't even know the years and names and shit. daaaawwg you are a dumb ass! whats the difference between a couple hundred years of when a church was built? huh? you don't know shit!................ ya digggggggg!
m16onm1c 2 years ago
That guy who was arrested wasn't a Mormon, "Ya know"
Natester27 2 years ago
To clarify, he was convicted of forced marriage and the community owned the hot springs where he performed
the marriage, Jesus would have considered polygamy
a civil marriage condoned by Jewish Law.
DadsBlueAngel 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Jesus Christ and his Apostles where considered a jewish cult.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
..Some OLd Tes. prophets also practiced incest (Gen. 19:32-38) as well as polygamy but that doesn't mean God approved of either practice..ANYONE including mormons can take Biblical verses to justify ANYTHING: immorality (polygamy), racism against blacks, baptizing dead people and a profane doctrine called "blood atonement"..this why we need to be in TRUE-believing christian church so Biblical verses are interpreted CORRECTLY whether literally, figuratively or within an historical context.
dimtry19 2 years ago
Warren Jeffs is not LDS or as you call "Mormon". Need to get your facts straight. Its like calling a Catholic a Jew just because they both read the Old Testament!
EscapeNewJersey 3 years ago
"Warren Jeffs is not LDS or as you call "Mormon". "
You;re right, but the FLDS believes it's following the revelation regarding polygamy because the LDS were forced to renounce it, bowing to the pressures and giving up God's law in favor of man's law.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Read the Bible, some of greatest prophets such as Abraham had more than one wife. God himself arranged for David to have more than one wife. So don't pull an uneducated double standard on me!
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Nice try, but since D&C 132 clearly lays out that exaltation requires polyamy and temple marriage as a "new and everlasting covenant," the LDS aren't even following their own texts. Everlasting doesn't mean 47 years, does it?
And since this came up before, I thought about it a bit. God didn't tell anyone to take all of those wives and concubines because that was his ideal; it was more of a welfare service. Where else would they all have gone?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Nice try liar, polygamy is not required but marriage is required. I require you moparmonster1965 to quote the exact scripture that says polygamy is required for "exaltation ".
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
The only men who become Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into polygamy (Brigham Young, August 19, 1866, Journal of Discourses 11:269)
Oops, you failed again.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Journal of Discourse is not scripture.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
You sure about that?
"The JOD deservedly ranks as one of the standrad works of the Chursh, and every rightminded Saint will certainly welcome with joy every Number as it comes froth from the press as an additional reflector of "light that shines from Zion hill." (preface of JOD, volume 8)
It's obviously not required reading, however, because it's 27 volumes.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Yes, I an absolutely sure what the scriptures are included in the LDS canon. However, you obviously don't know.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"I thought about it a bit." - Maybe you should have read the Bible!
2 Samuel Chapter 12
7. And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; 8 And I gave thee thy masters house, and thy masters wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"Maybe you should have read the Bible!"
You're referring to the Bible that you don't believe is accurate and correct, right?
It was a package deal and again, a form or welfare or social service. God didn't command him to take a whole bunch of wives; it's better that they were given to him to take care of because they would've otherwise died. That's different from being ordered to assemble a large harem.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Nice try moparmonster1965, you are the one that is actually saying the Bible is incorrect.
If the Mormonsdidn't believe in the Bible as scrfipture why is it included as official scripture in the LDS canon?
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Beats me.
"unlike the Bible, which passed through generations of copyists, translators, and corrupt religionists who tampered with the text, the BOM came from writer to reader in just one inspired step of translation." (Ensign, Jan 1992, p 5)
Since the Ensign is comissioned, approved, authorized, printed, and distributed by the church, it is indeed the church's opinion. And since Jesus is at the head of the church, it's his opinion.
So why is it part of your scripture?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
The Bible HAS been passed through the generations and copied and translated over and over. This is a fact that is known the world over. It is also well known that there are many versions of the Bible (some contain books that others don't). What is the error about Mormons acknowleging these facts. This is why the last 12 verses of the Book of Mark where added by scribes and are not in the earliest manuscipts. This is a fact that is well known by real Bible scolars the world over. tip iceburg.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
JST of the King James version of the Bible is the most accurate version of the Bible.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Even more so than the prophet who restored the church, Joseph Smith?
And if the KJV is the most correct version, why doesn't the church issue a completely correct version? Oh wait, it contains a "fulness of the Gospel," according to page 5.
Which is it? Correct or incorrect?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
The Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the Gospel. Testify means "three witnesses" - The Old Testament, New Testament, and Book of Mormon are the three witnesses that testify of the truth of the Gospel. All three support each other and testify to the other's truth. Gods words never end and new scripture is the sign of a true church as it always has in the past and will in the future.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"God didn't command him to take a whole bunch of wives"
I gave you a scripture that proved that God not only approved of David having multiple wives, God actually arranged for it to occur!
moparmonster1965 I have proven you wrong and the case is closed!
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"I have proven you wrong and the case is closed!"
The case or your mind?
David taking them on as a whole is far different from being told to gather up a bunch of wives. You're right, God did arrange it, but if he didn't, they would've likely died or been sold into slavery. It's not the Biblical ideal, but it was a situation that had to dealt with.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
LOL, this jury rigged scenario you are crafting in your own mindmoparmonster1965 to change the Bible to the way you want it to be is what creates apostacy.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
In its context, that's exactly what it means, but in your taking it out of its proper context, you change the meaning to be what you want.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
You are applying your own wants and modern beliefs that are not stated in the Bible scripture.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
This is how apostacy starts when men like you moparmonster1965 who are not prophets or Apostles interpret and change the meaning of the Bible. That is what occured when the pagan Emperor Constantine and other men formulated the Nicene Creed to conform to popular Platonic Greek Philosophy and the political ambitions of Constantine. However, the Bible actually clearly states Jesus Christ and God the Father are separate and distinct beings. Nicene Creed is accepted as scripture!?!?
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Let's see, your standard for changing the Bible allows for such when it's a prophet? Okay, then, how many false prophesies make a false prophet? Since JS hasn't made one that came true, he's in the right zip code. And by that same standard, why don't use use the JST in its entirety?
You've gone far to prove that you don't believe in the Bible. Fair enough, but why is it part of your scripture?
That God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate is not in the Bible.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
"That God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate is not in the Bible."
The Arians used the following eight scriptures against the apostacy invention of the Trinity:
1. "The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old" (Prov. 8:22)
2. "but of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Mark 13:32)
3. "for my Father is greater than I." (John 14:38)
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"That God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate is not in the Bible."
The Arians used the following eight scriptures against the apostacy invention of the Trinity:
4. "and this is life eternal, that they may know thee, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (John 17:3)
5. "The Son can do nothing of himself." (John 3:19)
6. "Why callest thou me good? There is none good, but one, that is God." (Mark 10:18)
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Several of these passages can most certainly be interpreted that way, but given the church's track record on being correct, it can't be taken at its word.
I also find some problems with your citations:
John 14:38: there is no 38th verse; it's the 28th
John 3:19: what you quoted there isn't in that verse
John 17:3: this is reworded from my quad, text is added
I don't know what version you're using or you're being deceitful, but I have a 1996 quad.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
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King James Translation Of Bible
John 3:17 - " For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved."
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
King James Translation Of Bible
John 5: 19 - Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
King James Translation Of Bible
John 14: 28 - Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I ago unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
Please remember moparmonster the scriptures where presented by Arius and Athanasius to the Council of Nicene in the early 300's A.D. the KJV of the Bible did not exist . There are variations and changes due to scribes and kings and many ofther translations. The Bible we know today did not exist until the very late 300s A.D. and early 400s A.D. Until then there where only indiviual books floating around and nobody argeed which books to accept and reject.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
I guess that goes to show that your god isn't all that powerful since he couldn't stop it. Or maybe he just didn't give a shit for 1,800 years.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
"That God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate is not in the Bible."
The Arians used the following eight scriptures against the apostacy invention of the Trinity:
7. "Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name that is above every name." (Philippians 2:9)
8. And also passages that represented Jesus suffering, growing in wisdom etc. (Luke 2:52; John 11:33, 38; Matthew 26:39)
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Athanasius, for whom the Father and the Son were of one substance, used the following passages 3 passages to support the Trinity apostacy:
1. "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30)
2. "The Father is in me and I in the Father." (John 10:38)
2. "He who has seen me has seen the Father." (John 14:9)
These are all metaphors from John that ment God and Jesus Christ are one in purpose and mind. This is confirmed in John 17 where church members are to be one in mind like God and Christ.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"You are applying your own wants and modern beliefs that are not stated in the Bible scripture."
I couldn't have said it better myself.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
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John 17 - KJV
11 "And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be bone, as we are." (Note "are" in italics - added by scribes)
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
21 "That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me."
22 "And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
23 "I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me."
Therefore, God and Christ are one in purpose and mind.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
I have not interpreted anything in my own way, it is explicitly stated what is ment by God and Jesus Christ are one in John 17. John 17 states that God and Jesus Christ are one in mind and purpose and the Christian Church saints are told to be one on mind and purpose also.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
And yet you still separate them into distinct beings based on the word of JS alone in his account of the Furst Vision.
You're aware that the currect, accepted version wasn't written in his own hand, right? In fact, the version that was featured a "Jewish Minister (whatever the hell that's supposed to be)" named Joshua.
Your words are correct but your interpretation is based on making the Bible contents conform to Mormon doctrine.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
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The history of the the Christian church before the Nicene Creed shows that most of the Christian fathers viewed God and Christ as separate and distinct beings. It was changed by Constantine to conform with Platonic Greek Philosophy to unify his empire. The Bible has far more scripture that clear states Jesus Christ is not God. Its the pure truth and it is very profound and meaningful.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Comment removed
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
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Also, moparmonster1965 did you ever notice that the word "is" in the phase "God is Spirit" is in italics in the Bible. That is to let the educated reader know that the word "is" was added by scribes and is not in the earliest Greek manuscripts (there are no original Bible manuscripts by the way). So the entire belief God as being only a Spirit is based on a word that in not even in the oldest Bible manuscripts. The apostacy house of cards starts to fall down!!
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Instead of "God is Spirit," it really means "God Spirit?"
That makes perfect sense in an incomplete sentence sort of way.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
It can mean many many things
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"It was a package deal and again, a form or welfare or social service."
This is a really silly statement, David could have supported them he didn't have to wed them all to support them in a welfare system. The point is is that David, Abraham ,etc etc. had multiple wives. You don't want to directly admit it because it supports LDS doctrine. You want to deny whats clear in the bible to satify your own religious arrogance.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
"The point is is that David, Abraham ,etc etc. had multiple wives. You don't want to directly admit it because it supports LDS doctrine."
I never denied it, did I? And no, it most certainly doesn't support LDS doctrine because you're not longer allowed to be a polygamist, are you?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Plural marriage is not essential to salvation or exaltation. Nephi and his people were denied the power to have more than one wife and yet they could gain every blessing in eternity that the Lord ever offered to any people. In our day, the Lord summarized by revelation the whole doctrine of exaltation and predicated it upon the marriage of one man to one woman. (D. & C. 132:1-28.)
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
Can you then tell me the reason that the old D&C 101 condemned polygamy while the church was actively practicing it? And why was it then removed when section 132 was added?
How does that convey honesty and integrity?
And why did BY say this: "Now if any of you will deny the plurality of wives, and continue to do so, I promise that you will be damned." (Journal of Discourses, Vol. 3, p. 266).
Isn't he the mouthpiece of God himself?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Polygamy was not permitted in the Book of Mormon times and polygamy was permitted in the many periods in the Bible which I have proven. Polygamy is permitted by God at certain times and it is usually at times to preserve God's people - this was told to me by a Rabbi at askmoses website. Therefore, everything that Mormons do and belive is traced back to the Bible and is the restorartion of all things.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
So again, why was the church practicing polygamy when it openly denied it?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
So again moparmonster1965 , why are you saying that the verses in the Bible that say polygamy was allowed and arranged by God are false scriptures but criticize Mormon for believeing the Bible is correct?
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
I didn't say that. The old D&C 101 is clearly against polygamy but the church practiced it at that same time.
Why?
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Probably for the same reasons you suggested to was practiced in the Bible, to preserve the Momron people during intense persecution.
EscapeNewJersey 2 years ago
That's no reason; you're making excuses for the early church not to have followed their own doctrines.
moparmonster1965 2 years ago
Another insight.. Good vid!
eNathan314 3 years ago
Well, think about biology. A man makes millions of sperm while a woman can only have ONE egg at a time.
trolltroll666 3 years ago
Excellent !
trolltroll666 3 years ago