The preconception I bring to the Bible is that a singular personal pronoun defines a single Person. This is a fair preconception. I go to the Bible believing that in Hebrew and Greek and Engish "I, Me, Him" designate a single person. God in the Bible is defined throughout by singular personal pronouns. This means that God is a single Person. This is a proper preconception, based on our laws of language. I speak after a career teaching in a Bible college. I think my assumption is valid..
Personal pronouns such as "I, Me and Him" designate a single HUMAN PERSON. But remember God is much more intricately distinct and not subject to human limitations. Also consider Genesis 1:26 - Let US make man in OUR own image. Perhaps you could explain Deuteronomy 6:4 - "Hear, O Israel! Yahweh is our God, Yahweh is one (Echad not Yachid)!" Yachid means solitary oneness such as one in number. Echad is most often used as a unified oneness as is the case in Gen 2:24.
@BauerPower247...Yes God is not a human, nor son of a human [Num 23.19] but personal pronouns are there for a reason. Also, in case you did not know, even trinis have stopped using the so-called "US texts" in Genesis. See any Bible commentary/dictionary. Echad is the equivalent of the numerical value "1". Again, check your Hebrew lexicon/concordance. Just like in the Greek "eis" is the numerical "1".
@AbrahamicMovement even trinis have stopped using the so-called "US texts" in Genesis." Sure, ok. Can you please show me in the bible where God is defined as 1 person. In otherwords that monotheism is unitarianism?
Every Hebrew Lexicon/concordance I have referenced has defined Echad as united oneness and Yachid as the numerical one. "Yachid" is NEVER used of God in the Old testament.
The doctrine of a so called "Holy Trinity" is nowhere taught in Scripture. This is purely and simply a doctrine and tradition of mere men and not of Father Yahweh.
@Frank4YAHWEH "who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself[a] purged our[b] sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high" Heb 1:3
When you think of person you are thinking of it in human terms.
Note it does not say in the express image of Their persons (plural). You have answered your own question of Yahweh being a person (singular) and not persons (plural). Note it also goes onto say that Yahshua upheld all things by the power of HIS (not THEIR) and our Father Yahweh's word and that Yahshua sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on High. Yahshua was or is not the "Majesty on High" since he sat at His right hand.
Mark, it seems that you hit a nerve with this video. Look at these strangers that have come to your comment section and have spammed you with their grief! Just look at them!
They're all like a bunch of blowflies buzzing around a carcass trying to pollute the truth of God.
They all seem to have a vast knowledge of the Old Testament and the Greek and Hebrew text, and they love to lay it out for all to see.
I want to tell you all that it will add to your condemnation. Unregenerate all.
I was teaching at the jail over the weekend and I came a passage in John chapter 6 or 7 or 8 I am not sure of the exact location but, It was when Jeus was testifing on his on behalf and he tole the pharisees that "He testifies and the Father testifies on His behalf. and that makes 2" I guess this shoots the oneness stuff in the foot.
October31st1517, You said in your video you were going to address the unitarian abuse of John 17:3 but you didn't. I'm currently confronting bandaidmafia in his video "God Died for your Sins" with it. I am trying to get him to concede that he is hallucinating Jesus as saying, " that they may know "only" You as the only true God". He is assuming that God is only one person contrary to John saying that Jesus is also "the true God" in 1 John 5:20.
if you read 1 John 5:20 in CONTEXT with the previous verse:- we know that we are of God [SUBJECT IS GOD], and the whole world lieth in wickedness.
And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true [SUBJECT GOD], and we are in him that is true [SUBJECT GOD], even in his Son Jesus Christ [1 JOHN 2:24 - 'AND' - TWO INDIVIDUALS]. This is the true God [SUBJECT GOD], and eternal life. - So how exactly does this prove your argument?
dunklaw, Can't you read? It's as plain as the nose on your face: "...This Jesus is both True God and Real Life." (Msg) and "This [Man] is the true God and Life eternal." (Amp) I think it proves my point very clear that John thought of Jesus as the true God.
Nowhere in his writings has he ever conveyed the thought "Jesus as the true God." It was specifically his goal in his writings to convey to us that Yahshua is the Messiah THE SON OF Yahweh, not that he was a second Yahweh or a mere "God". Read it for yourself in a translation of his writings in your so called "Holy Bible New Testament" John 20:31". Read how Yahshua said to Kepha that it was not flesh and blood that had revealed to him that he was the Messiah THE SON OF the living Yahweh, ...
... but that it was his Father Yahweh Who is in heaven Who had revealed this into him. Note also in the context of this passage that when Yahshua asked them "Whom do men say that I am?" that not one of his disciples ever said that some say "You are God!" They never answered such a foolish thing as this for the plain and simple fact that they or anyone else at that time believed that he was "God". Those who knew the truth most certainly believed him the be the promised Messiah, THE SON OF Yahweh.
No, That's not lame that's John. John wants his readers to know that Jesus being the Son of God makes Jesus=God. Now confess Jesus is your God before it's too late.
There is nothing more lame than your suggesting that Thomas a monotheist addressed Yahshua as a mere "God" since he never spoke a word of English! LOL!
Hmm! That's strange! Satan is also referred to in the Greek as 'HO THEOS'! You do not seem to be catching on too fast here to your own schooling! You must really be slow! Maybe you should ask about special class! LOL!
Ha! You thought context was a new word? Context is an old word! Older than you! You finally got to knowing this word? Now you need to no it's meaning! LOL!
Note that in the Greek that Thomas did not specify 'HO THEOS' as the "HO THEOS of or in Heaven."
Note that in the context that Thomas "answered". What was the question?
What the hell made you think that I did not know of the word 'context' and it's meaning? Certainly you have not been paying much attention to what I have been saying here or you would have known that I knew.
No, I did not dodge the question. You were not paying attention and missed my answer. LOL!
To tell you the truth other than what I believe, this would be a question for the translators, but since those who initially translated are dead and gone, you will be hard-pressed to find out who they were referring to. Then there is the question that you might pose to the translators and editors after them. Were they completely honest in their translating and editing?
Were they completely unbias in their translating and editing? Did they have access to the most ancient manuscripts to determine proper translation and editing. Is it possible that they could have intentionally or intentionally mistranslated words here and there? What I choose to do in determining what is truly being said, is to take the whole context of what is being said into consideration and weighing the evidence. In so doing, I have concluded that without a doubt Yahshua is not Yahweh. ...
I have concluded this because of my daily study of Scripture. In my study and reading of the so called "New Testament", I see the promised and prophesied Messiah being born or coming into existence. I see that he is given a special name by his and our Heavenly Father and Creator. I see him in his proclaiming the glad tidings of his and our Father Yahweh future Kingdom. I see Yahshua communicating ["praying"] FROM EARTH to his and our Heavenly Father WHO IS IN HEAVEN.
I see that Father Yahweh has given his son Yahshua men from the earth to also proclaim the glad tidings of Father Yahweh's future Kingdom. I see them all as one asking those of the earth to turn from following in their own ways and encouraging them to turn from disobedience of Father Yahweh's teaching ["sin"] and setting an example in obedience to Father Yahweh. I see Yahshua as an obedient servant of his and our Father Yahweh unto death and see the apostles and his disciples doing the same. ...
I could go on and on about what I have learned from studying this portion of the Scripture which refers to many of the fulfilled prophecies of the promised Messiah. How he and the apostles gave their lives that we of future generations could also know of our Heavenly Father and Creator's way that He has set before us.
I know how this is related to what the prophets of old have taught and how they also given their own lives so that the glad tidings of Father Yahweh's future Kingdom would be proclaimed to future generations of ALL Nations and how we also may be a part of it as children (sons and daughters) of the Most High through obedience. I learned of the faith that was once and for all delivered unto them and their belief in the coming promised Messiah. I know from context that he did not exist back then.
I know from the context of the so called "Old Testament" that it was Father Yahweh ALONE Who is the creator of the Heavens and the Earth and ALL things in them and that there was no Redeemer beside Him. I know by comparing these two portions of Scripture that Father Yahweh anointed and appointed His son Yahshua to reign as King and had given him ALL power (authority) in Heaven and in the Earth. I see by comparison that before Yahshua Kings and priests were anointed and appointed to rule. ...
I see by comparing theses two portions of Scripture that these Kings and Priest were the spokesmen of Father Yahweh's word and that Yahshua is the spokesman of Father Yahweh's word in this last time period. I see from the context as a whole that there is only one Heavenly Father and Creator Yahweh and that in this last time period that there is only one Master whom Father Yahweh Himself has given ALL power and authority to. Yahweh has even given him the authority over sin and death.
Yahshua has given all esteem to Father Yahweh as we also should do in example. Yahshua is our head and Father Yahweh is the Supreme Head over Yahshua and us all. Father Yahweh and His son Yahshua are not equal for Yahshua himself said parabolically that a servant is not above his master and that the Father is greater than he. Yahshua was and is most certainly a humble servant of his and our Father Yahweh.
In the end time after Yahshua's 1,000 year reign, he will also be in complete subjection to Father Yahweh that Yahweh may be all in all and reign as King Supreme over the new Heavens and the new Earth. HalleluYAHWEH! (Praise be to Yahweh!).
This was the Jews false accusation that he was breaking the Sabbath and making himself equal with Yahweh. Yahshua was not breaking the Sabbath in accordance with his and our Heavenly Father and Creator's teaching and he most certainly did not believe that he was equal with Father Yahweh since he had clearly said that the Father was greater than he.
John does not tell us that was false accusation. In fact they were correct because John tells us Jesus was God in 1:1 and John wants us to call Jesus our God just like Thomas did.
He never tells us in 1:1 "Jesus was God" and never says 'I want you to call Jesus our God just like Thomas did.' Your so called "facts" are nothing but perversions of what he said. Yahshua breaking the Sabbath was most certainly a false accusation made by the Jews. Yahshua would never disobey his and our Father Yahweh's teaching (torah, law, commandment, instruction) concerning the observance of the Sabbath. If he did he himself would become a sinner. I follow Yahshua, not the accusing Jews!
Carefully selected, doctrinally biased translations do not change the original text. The insertion of 'man' in to this sentence structure is totally erroneous & misleading. A close rendering of part of this verse is 'And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ.' - then comparing 1 JOHN 2:24 - so if we are also to be in union with the Father also does that make us God?
The insertion of "[Man]" in the Amp in 1 Jn 5:20 is justified by the grammar. Comparing the construct of 1 Jn 2:24 to 1 Jn 5:20 is comparing apples to oranges. Your argument is irrelevant.
Why are you looking for quantitative evidence? If God says something once, it's true. If He says something twice it's true, If He says it 10000, it's true. If God says it it's true. You are just looking for reasons not to believe.
If you can prove what you are saying purely from scripture then I will believe.
So was Acts 13:2 just a turn of phrase or was it in direct contradiction to John 16:13 - Jesus own words? How can you possibly claim that your belief is base squarely on scripture?
Interesting - so are you saying that these accounts directly contradict John 16:13?
Acts 8:29 & 10:19 do not say that the HOLY spirit spoke. Acts 28:25 clearly states that the holy spirit spoke THROUGH. This just leaves Acts 21:11. Interesting how all these occurrences are from only one book - ACTS.
And since the book was written by Luke & this verse & 13:2 is referring to Paul & Saul (third person - after the fact accounts) it is hardly conclusive as to being literal.
dunklaw, You need to explain your point. What does it matter HOW the Holy Spirit speaks? The fact of the matter is that the Holy Spirit speaks which shows He is a person and Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit in the pronoun "He" which means Jesus thought of the Holy Spirit as a person.
It is not unusual in the Scriptures for something that is not actually a person to be personalized or personified.Wisdom is personified at Matthew 11:19 & Luke 7:35, where it is depicted as having both 'works' and 'children.' The apostle Paul personalized sin and death and also undeserved kindness as 'kings.' (Ro 5:14, 17, 21; 6:12) - (cont.)
dunklaw, John used "with (greek: pros)" in Jn 1:1 which expressly communicates that John meant the Word to be a person with God. And if that is not enough for you he also said the Word "was" God. That is irrefutably a literal person not a personification or figure of speech. Do you think "God" is a figure of speech and not an actual person? John expressly says the Word was God.
I am not even going to go to waste my time on that old chestnut. Especially since John was probably quoting from the Rig Veda - And the Sanskrit say 'and a divine one was the word'.
(cont.) - He speaks of sin as 'receiving an inducement,' working out covetousness, seducing, and killing. (Ro 7:8-11) Yet it is obvious that Paul did not mean that sin was actually a person.
In a large number of cases the expression 'holy spirit' appears in the original Greek without the article, thus indicating its lack of personality.—Compare Ac 6:3, 5; 7:55; 8:15, 17, 19; 9:17; 11:24; 13:9, 52; 19:2; Ro 9:1; 14:17; 15:13, 16, 19; 1Co 12:3; Heb 2:4; 6:4; 2Pe 1:21; Jude 20, in interlinear translations.
If the Holy Spirit is not a person then explain why Jesus refers to Him as a person (Jesus uses the pronoun "He") and the Holy Spirit can feel grieved? If the Holy Spirit is only some kind of breath then does your bad breath feel grieved when you attack it with mouth wash?
Have a look a 1 Corinthians 2:12 & think about it.
Have a look at 1 Tim 3:16 - 'was declared righteous in spirit' - not THE spirit as some translations put it - it is telling us that he was justified by his ACTIONS - it's really not that complicated.
Funny how none of the many bibles I have on esword use capitals for 'spirit of the world' IN 1 Co 2:12 but a few ( A MINORITY) do for 'spirit which is of god' - translation bias & interpretation? - DEFINITELY!
The Messiah NEVER said or explained "The Holy Spirit is a person." Pull you head out of the sand there jeffery0662 and note the "QUOTATION MARKS" and your use of the word 'says'.
Frank4YAHWEH, There are no quotation marks around the pronoun "He" when Jesus uses that pronoun to describe the Holy Spirit. Jesus called the Holy Spirit a person when He called Him a "He". You are calling Jesus a liar.
I never said that there were any quotation marks around the pronoun he. If you shear the wool from your eyes you would see what I was referring to were the quotation marks in YOUR SAYING that Yahshua SAID "The Holy Spirit is a person." He never SAID or explained such a foolish thing as this. Yahshua TRANSLATION is also said to have refered to a sword in personification. Are you asking us to believe that a sword is also a person? We are not so foolish!
8the Spirit where he willeth doth blow, and his voice thou dost hear, but thou hast not known whence he cometh, and whither he goeth; thus is every one who hath been born of the Spirit.'
1 This shows the Holy Spirit is a Person.
2 This shows the Holy Spirit is sovereign.
You cannot refute this passage Will you accept the Deity of the Holy Spirit now?
This is not the ORIGINAL GREEK! Hell no! I will NEVER accept "the Deity of the Holy Spirit"! Did you really believe that I would accept such foolisness from a fool such as you? LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH, You better accept the Holy Spirit's Deity. Paul tells us that the Holy Spirit is Yahweh in 2 Cor 3:16,17. Paul is alluding Ex 34:34 use of YHWH. The Holy Spirit=YHWH
I do believe that Yahweh's set apart spirit is in fact Himself. I simply do not believe that His set apart spirit is a separte being apart from Himself as a Trinity as Trinitarians believe or as a Twinity as the Dualist believe. Yahweh's set apart spirit and His son are not three or two "Gods" or "Deities" united as one as separate beings apart from Father Yahweh. Father Yahweh's son did not pre-exist his birth and was not a creator or a co-creator with Father Yahweh in the beginning.
"And now the Lord GOD has sent Me, and His Spirit."
NASU
The speaker refers to himself as the one who is responsible for the creation of the heavens and the earth. It is clear that he cannot be speaking of anyone other than God. But then in verse 16, the speaker refers to himself using the pronouns of I and me and then distinguishes himself from two other personalities. He distinguishes himself from the Lord YHVH and then from the Spirit of God.
That's because you are damned Frank. Paul tells us in 1 Cor 12:3 that only those who have the Holy Spirit in them can say Jesus is YHWH and in Rom 10:9 that only those who confess with their mouth that Jesus is YHWH will be saved. You are damning yourself to hell Frank
Frank, Paul was not saying Jesus is not YHWH in Eph 3:14 because in Eph 4:8 referring to Jesus, he alludes to Ps 68:18 where YHWH" ascends on high.." again clearly calling Jesus YHWH. Paul repeatedly tells us in his corpus that YHWH is Jesus.
Again, you show your stupidity! I never said "Paul was not saying Jesus is not YHWH" in Ephesians 4:8. Shaul never had to make it clear that Yahshua is not Yahweh for the plain and simple fact that I had pointed our earlier, noone ever believed or even thought that Yahshua was Yahweh at that time. Shaul at no time clearly called Yahshua Yahweh and he most certainly NEVER REPEATEDLY told anyone or tells us in his corpus that Yahweh is Yahshua ["Jesus"].
Does 1 Cor 12:3 say that? 'Therefore I would have YOU know that nobody when speaking by Gods spirit says: Jesus is accursed! and nobody can say: Jesus is Lord! except by holy spirit.'. BTW no one is going to burn and be tormented anywhere - Ecclesiastes 9:7-10.
You seem to be confusing spirit (Pneuma - wind) with Holy spirit - these are not the same. Example Pneuma is where the modern word pneumatic (wind/air moved) tools comes from. Holy spirit which originally comes from the Hebrew 'qôdesh' (special) 'rûach' (wind / breath) - a special wind or a special motivating force.
"You seem to be confusing spirit (Pneuma - wind) with Holy spirit "
Here is the literal greek translation.
the Spirit where he willeth doth blow, and his voice thou dost hear, but thou hast not known whence he cometh, and whither he goeth; thus is every one who hath been born of the Spirit.'
John 3:8
It Gives personal pronouns to the Holy Ghost. Not only that but it shows His sovereignty.
Then can you please explain why ASV, Bishops, CJB, Geneva, IGNT, KJV-1611, KJV, NIV, NKJV, NLT all translate John 3:8 as 'the WIND where he willeth doth blow'?
dunklaw, In Jn 3:8 John was not having Jesus say that Christians are born again by literal" wind". I believe your conversion experience was a false one based on a lot of "hot air" but a genuine new birth comes from the Holy Spirit.
Ancient Hebrew is a concrete language (no abstracts) unlike Greek. When it uses the term wind/breath it is referring to its function - We might say 'the wind in ours sails' - the motivating force power that makes all living things animate. See James 2:24 - we need to have motivating force to produce works. See the cross comparison in verse 26. Being born again is the gift God gives through his 'Special active force' - Holy Spirit.
dunlaw, As I just explained, an impersonal active force has never argued a defense case for someone in a court of law. And since Jesus said the Holy Spirit is "another Counselor" from Himself then you are calling Jesus another impersonal force instead of a Person.
The fruits of action can argue a case just as the physical evidence can argue a case - does a smoking gun need to speak or be alive?
Jn 14:16 in a litteral translation does not say councillor but actually say's 'another paraclete (comforter).' Greek., allon parakleton, masculine. Therefore it does not indicate conversation or intelligent interaction.
Paraclete (lat. paracletus) comes from the Koine Greek word παράκλητος (paráklētos, "one who consoles, one who intercedes on our behalf, a comforter or an advocate").
dunlaw, are you blind to your own words? Look at what you typed, "one who...one who..." A "who" is a person. This particular person is a lawyer who intercedes in front of a judge on behalf of his client. This is also seen in 1 Jn 2:1 of Jesus "who speaks to the Father in our defense". Impersonal forces have never been lawyers who speak on behalf of their clients.
Since God himself is a Spirit and is holy and since all his faithful angelic sons are spirits and are holy, it is evident that if the 'holy spirit' were a person, there should reasonably be given some means in the Scriptures to distinguish and identify such spirit person from all these other holy spirits.
It would be expected that, at the very least, the definite article would be used with it in all cases where it is not called 'Gods holy spirit' or is not modified by some similar expression. This would at least distinguish it as THE Holy Spirit. But, on the contrary, in a large number of cases the expression 'holy spirit' appears in the original Greek without the article, thus indicating its lack of personality.
dunlaw, The context defines who the Holy Spirit is. There a large number of cases where Lord Jesus does not have the article "THE" in the greek. Does Jesus lack personality from all the other Jesus' of His day?
The only others I can find are at Luke 3:29 (he is already dead) & Col 4:11 but to differentiate him he is also called Jestus & neither of these are called the Christ. You are clutching at straws.
This is referring to the actual teaching of Jesus as opposed to any other teaching - not another literal person named Jesus. Do you think that ALL false prophets would be called Jesus? You really are getting desperate.
You are the desperate one because you see the references to "The Lord Jesus" without any "The" article in the greek and yet Jesus is a person. Likewise your argument is destroyed that the Holy Spirit is not a person because there is no "The" article in the greek.
Well since you want to play that game, there is no article in the Greek for the description "The Father". Since that is not His name that makes the Father not a person either?
So was Jesus talking about Joseph? Common really, I think it is you who are playing games. All Jews would have known who THE FATHER is - Psalms 2:7 Proverbs 3:12 Isaiah 63:16 64:8. You just do not want to admit the obvious.
dunklaw, What is obvious is that you are wrong to claim "THE" article has to accompany a person in Greek. I proved you wrong but you would rather burn in hell than give Jesus His glory.
Oh, a very technical response. Ok, if this is a personality with a name, is the ACTUAL name 'the holy spirit' or is it 'holy spirit' or is it 'spirit' or is it 'holy'?
Remember Jesus Sir name was NOT 'Christ' (anointed one) - Leviticus 4:3 Isaiah 45:1- but he is A Christ (anointed one).
Give WHO the glory? - Philippians 4:20 - & I thought we were talking about Holy Spirit.
There are many references to "The Lord Jesus" that don't have the title "Christ". And neither do they have THE article. But the context tells us who it is. The context shows the Holy Spirit is a person.
That scripture John 3:8 proves the point completely with regard to pneuma - KJV says: - The winde bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tel whence it commeth, and whither it goeth: So is euery one that is borne of the Spirit. - or more literally - The wind blows where it wants to, and you hear the sound of it, but you do not know where it comes from and where it is going. So is everyone that has been born from the spirit (wind).
26. It was in the beginning with God, by its activity all things came into being (Martin Dibelius, The Message of Jesus Christ, translated by F.C. Grant, 1939)
27. Through its agency all things came into being and apart from it has not one thing come to be (William Temple, Archbishop of Canterbury, Readings from St. Johns Gospel, 1939)
28. The energizing mind was in existence from the very beginning (Crofts, The Four Gospels, 1949) Continued ...
39. In the beginning was the Plan of Yahweh. All things were done according to it (Hawkins, Book of Yahweh, 1987)
40. All things happened through it (Gaus, Unvarnished NT, 1991)
41. In the beginning was the divine word and wisdomÖeverything came to be by means of it (Robert Miller, The Complete Gospels, Annotated Scholars Version, 1992
Frank4YAHWEH, Again John 1:3 "all things were made by HIM" (greek: autou) That is a masculine pronoun not an 'it'. You need to enroll yourself in a second grade reading remedial course so you can learn what pronouns are.
No, I do not need to enroll myself in a second grade reading remedial course so I can learn what pronouns are. I am very well aware of what pronouns are. I even have books on English grammer in my personal library.
John 1:3 says : - All things came into existence THROUGH him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence.
Frank4YAHWEH, I can't keep this up with much longer because you are an ignorant fool. In John 16:7 Jesus said "I will send HIM" greek (autos) it's a pronoun. A pronoun is used for a person.Then in verse 8 Jesus uses another masculine pronoun (ekeinos) "When HE comes" and so on etc, etc, etc
Yes it is Frank. You lost this debate. I copied and pasted that straight from the Byzantine/Majority Text (2000) + Textus Receptus (1551) + Textus Receptus (1894) Westcott/Hort + Tischendorf 8th ed. v2.5. It looks like you are the stupid one here.
If you copied and pasted this straight from these sources it is quite obvious then that this is NOT THE ORIGINAL GREEK and it is quite obvious that you are the stupid one. Anyone who believes that these sources are THE ORIGINAL are unlearned and unstable and are bound to wrest the Scripture to their own destruction. In fact, there are no ORIGINALS in existence. If you have not learned this by now, you are most certainly an ignorant fool.
I didn't say they were the original manuscripts as in the autographs. I said the original greek as in the language those obscure english translations you quoted are based on. Don't be such an assumptive fool.
I just wanted to let it be known that you were not specific in your saying "Here is the original Greek". Now I am only assuming that you are well aware that there are diverse beliefs among scholars of the Greek language of how any particular Greek manuscipt (which number over 5,600 fragments) in existence is to be translated. I have made known 41 of these as I have quoted above.
Now, will you foolishly continue to harp one single word that has been translated and personified into the English language as 'he' in reference to Yahweh's set apart spirit saying that it is a separate person or "Deity ("God") other than Yahweh Himself in unity with Him and ignoring the many other Scriptural reference to His set apart spirit being an 'it'?
And to which of these or the many of the others translations of this verse would you like us to give reference to and ignore the complete context of Scripture as a whole?
bibleDOTcc/isaiah/48-16.htm
This verse is prophetically speaking of this or (theses) one(s) sent is (are) obviously in reference to the prophet(s) that is (are, were, or will be) sent in Yahweh's set apart spirit and most certainly prophetically speaking in reference to the greatest anointed prophet of all, His son Yahshua.
Shaul NEVER said "Jesus is YHWH Himself. " You can only wish and deceive others into believing he said this in order to promote your false, deceptive and demonic doctrines "Jesus God", God the Son, and pre-existent, creator or co-creator Jesus".
Frank4YAHWEH, I have given several quotes by Paul where he quotes Old Testament passages word for word but changes the name YHWH to Jesus. How can you say Paul is not saying YHWH is Jesus? I know, because you are damned and resist obeying God.
I agree that Shaul has quoted passages from the so called "Old Testament" Scripture, but you have yet to show me any evidence where he changes the Name YHWH to "Jesus". Your saying this only shows that Kepha spoke truthfully of ones like you who are unlearned unstable and that you wrest Shaul's letters as you also the other Scriptures, unto their own destruction (2 Kepha [Peter] 3:16).
I can in truth say that Shaul NEVER SAID "YHWH is Jesus." for the simple fact that there is no record of him SAYING such a foolish STATEMENT! How stupid are you that you can not understand this simple statement that I have just made? I have even gone as far as to even emphasize with CAPITALIZATION certain words in my pots to you and still you do not understand. Again I say to you, observe the "QUOTATION MARKS" that I have made in my posts. Now, QUOTE for me where Shaul SAID "YHWH is Jesus."
Paul didn't come out and use the word "Jehovah" for the same reason the LXX and our modern translations don't out of reverence for the Holy Name. Instead they, like Paul, use the word "Lord" in its place. "Lord"=YHWH in these translations and Paul used the LXX translation.
The word translated "Lord" is not always in reference to Father Yahweh but is also in reference to his son as our Master. "Lord" is also used in reference to others. It was his and our Father Yahweh that made His son Master. He gave him all power and authority in Heaven and in Earth. "Lord" does NOT equal YHWH! Until you are aware of this FACT, you will never come to the knowledge of the truth of Father Yahweh's inspired word.
Shaul NEVER said "Lord=YHWH=Jesus." in 1 Thessalonians 3:13.
It says:
May he strengthen your hearts so that you will be blameless and set apart in the presence of our Almighty One and Father when our Master Yahshua comes with all his set apart ones.
In fact, in no translation of this verse does it say "Lord=YHWH=Jesus."
rebelrhoads, In 1 Thess 3:13 Paul is quoting, word for word, from Zech 14:5 from the LXX version and replacing the word "Jehovah" with "Jesus". Paul does this on several occasions in his writings. Paul is definitely saying Jehovah is Jesus.
Where in hell did you ever get the idea that Shaul was quoting word for word from the Septuagint version and that he replaced the word 'Jehovah' with the word 'Jesus'? Certainly you did not get this foolish idea from what is recorded of his actions. He most certainly would not have disobeyed the warning of not adding unto or taking away from the prophetic word. He also is most definitely not recorded as saying "Jehovah is Jesus."
FrankYAHWEH, I got my info from "Pauline Christology" by Gordon Fee. You can read a good portion of his book on Google books for free. You might learn something. Yes, Paul was consciously calling Jesus YHWH.
We are not to get our doctrine for reproof and correction and instruction in righteousness from "Pauline Christology" by Gordon Fee. We are to get it from Scripture the word that has proceeded out of the mouth of Father Yahweh. No wonder you are so deceived! I have no interest in reading any portion or even one word of such rubbish! No, Shaul was not "consciously calling Jesus YHWH." Yahweh is our Heavenly FATHER and Creator and Yahshua is FATHER Yahweh's SON.
Frank4YAHWEH, you can't deny the fact that Paul had so many word for word quotes from the LXX where he changed YHWH into Jesus. Paul is telling us that YHWH is Jesus.
I deny that it is A FACT that Shaul "had so many word for word quotes from the Septuagint where he changed YHWH into Jesus." IN FACT, not once did he ever change Father Yahweh's inspired word! Shaul NEVER TOLD ANYONE "YHWH is Jesus." He NEVER is recorded in any translation of the so called "New Testament" as ever SAYING such a foolish thing as this! That is A FACT! You in no way can Lord over me in telling me what or what I can not deny! If the Scripture does not say it, then it never happened!
Frank4YAHWEH, You are an illiterate boob. Everyone knows Paul didn't actually use the word "YHWH" because that was considered blasphemy. But just as in today's translations, the LXX translated YHWH as "Kourios". You can't deny all of those Scriptures I posted (and there are many more) that Paul quoted referring to YHWH but Kourios (Lord) in the LXX and changed to refer to Jesus. You are purposely choosing to be an illiterate boob.
You are an unlearned and unstable ass! I know for a fact that Shaul was in obedience to Father Yahweh's word and set apart ("hallowed {made holy}, sanctify"), revered ("feared"), remembered, thought upon, waited upon, walked in, trusted in, loved, sought, declared (proclaimed), blessed, published, called upon, sang unto, praised, esteemed ("glorified"), made known ("manifested"), and knew the Name Yahweh.
I know for a fact that Yahshua made his and our Heavenly Father's Name known unto the men that He gave him from the world.
I have made Your Name known to the men which You gave me out of the world: Yours they were, and You gave them me; and they have kept Your word (Yahchanan [John] 17:6).
For I gave them the words You gave me and they accepted them (Yahchanan [John] 17:8a).
You are one who does not accept Father Yahweh's inspired word that was delivered unto His son Yahshua.
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tobqymaahy3713 10 months ago
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"Jesus Is God!" is one of the most false, deceptive and demonic doctrines that is taught among many Christian religions. yahwehDOTyolasiteDOTCOM
Frank4YAHWEH 1 year ago
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"Jesus Is God!" is one of the most false, deceptive and demonic doctrines that is taught among many Christian religions. yahwehDOTyolasiteDOTCOM
rebelrhoads 1 year ago
The preconception I bring to the Bible is that a singular personal pronoun defines a single Person. This is a fair preconception. I go to the Bible believing that in Hebrew and Greek and Engish "I, Me, Him" designate a single person. God in the Bible is defined throughout by singular personal pronouns. This means that God is a single Person. This is a proper preconception, based on our laws of language. I speak after a career teaching in a Bible college. I think my assumption is valid..
AbrahamicMovement 1 year ago
@AbrahamicMovement
Personal pronouns such as "I, Me and Him" designate a single HUMAN PERSON. But remember God is much more intricately distinct and not subject to human limitations. Also consider Genesis 1:26 - Let US make man in OUR own image. Perhaps you could explain Deuteronomy 6:4 - "Hear, O Israel! Yahweh is our God, Yahweh is one (Echad not Yachid)!" Yachid means solitary oneness such as one in number. Echad is most often used as a unified oneness as is the case in Gen 2:24.
BauerPower247 1 year ago
@BauerPower247...Yes God is not a human, nor son of a human [Num 23.19] but personal pronouns are there for a reason. Also, in case you did not know, even trinis have stopped using the so-called "US texts" in Genesis. See any Bible commentary/dictionary. Echad is the equivalent of the numerical value "1". Again, check your Hebrew lexicon/concordance. Just like in the Greek "eis" is the numerical "1".
AbrahamicMovement 1 year ago
@AbrahamicMovement even trinis have stopped using the so-called "US texts" in Genesis." Sure, ok. Can you please show me in the bible where God is defined as 1 person. In otherwords that monotheism is unitarianism?
October31st1517 1 year ago
@AbrahamicMovement
Every Hebrew Lexicon/concordance I have referenced has defined Echad as united oneness and Yachid as the numerical one. "Yachid" is NEVER used of God in the Old testament.
BauerPower247 1 year ago
yes, the INFINITE complexity in unity. The same word is used of the man and woman and the two becoming "one flesh"
shieldsff 6 months ago
"God in three persons, blessed Trinity." is simply hymnal and in no way Scriptural!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Then your problem is the bible bacause JESUS taught us this doctrine of the trinity. (John 15:26)
October31st1517 2 years ago
The doctrine of a so called "Holy Trinity" is nowhere taught in Scripture. This is purely and simply a doctrine and tradition of mere men and not of Father Yahweh.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
@Frank4YAHWEH Can you show me scripture that teaches God is only 1 person?
October31st1517 2 years ago
Can you show me in Scripture where "Yahweh is ever referred to as a "person"?
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
@Frank4YAHWEH "who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself[a] purged our[b] sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high" Heb 1:3
When you think of person you are thinking of it in human terms.
October31st1517 2 years ago
Note it does not say in the express image of Their persons (plural). You have answered your own question of Yahweh being a person (singular) and not persons (plural). Note it also goes onto say that Yahshua upheld all things by the power of HIS (not THEIR) and our Father Yahweh's word and that Yahshua sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on High. Yahshua was or is not the "Majesty on High" since he sat at His right hand.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Yahshua certainly did not sit in Father Yahweh's throne as his and our Father Yahweh.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Mark, it seems that you hit a nerve with this video. Look at these strangers that have come to your comment section and have spammed you with their grief! Just look at them!
They're all like a bunch of blowflies buzzing around a carcass trying to pollute the truth of God.
They all seem to have a vast knowledge of the Old Testament and the Greek and Hebrew text, and they love to lay it out for all to see.
I want to tell you all that it will add to your condemnation. Unregenerate all.
Afrikitty 2 years ago
I was teaching at the jail over the weekend and I came a passage in John chapter 6 or 7 or 8 I am not sure of the exact location but, It was when Jeus was testifing on his on behalf and he tole the pharisees that "He testifies and the Father testifies on His behalf. and that makes 2" I guess this shoots the oneness stuff in the foot.
gibsonjammer1 2 years ago
October31st1517, You said in your video you were going to address the unitarian abuse of John 17:3 but you didn't. I'm currently confronting bandaidmafia in his video "God Died for your Sins" with it. I am trying to get him to concede that he is hallucinating Jesus as saying, " that they may know "only" You as the only true God". He is assuming that God is only one person contrary to John saying that Jesus is also "the true God" in 1 John 5:20.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
if you read 1 John 5:20 in CONTEXT with the previous verse:- we know that we are of God [SUBJECT IS GOD], and the whole world lieth in wickedness.
And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true [SUBJECT GOD], and we are in him that is true [SUBJECT GOD], even in his Son Jesus Christ [1 JOHN 2:24 - 'AND' - TWO INDIVIDUALS]. This is the true God [SUBJECT GOD], and eternal life. - So how exactly does this prove your argument?
dunklaw 2 years ago 4
dunklaw, Can't you read? It's as plain as the nose on your face: "...This Jesus is both True God and Real Life." (Msg) and "This [Man] is the true God and Life eternal." (Amp) I think it proves my point very clear that John thought of Jesus as the true God.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Nowhere in his writings has he ever conveyed the thought "Jesus as the true God." It was specifically his goal in his writings to convey to us that Yahshua is the Messiah THE SON OF Yahweh, not that he was a second Yahweh or a mere "God". Read it for yourself in a translation of his writings in your so called "Holy Bible New Testament" John 20:31". Read how Yahshua said to Kepha that it was not flesh and blood that had revealed to him that he was the Messiah THE SON OF the living Yahweh, ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
... but that it was his Father Yahweh Who is in heaven Who had revealed this into him. Note also in the context of this passage that when Yahshua asked them "Whom do men say that I am?" that not one of his disciples ever said that some say "You are God!" They never answered such a foolish thing as this for the plain and simple fact that they or anyone else at that time believed that he was "God". Those who knew the truth most certainly believed him the be the promised Messiah, THE SON OF Yahweh.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
*to be
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
Jesus=God
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Lame!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
No, That's not lame that's John. John wants his readers to know that Jesus being the Son of God makes Jesus=God. Now confess Jesus is your God before it's too late.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Got anymore lame reponses? LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
There is nothing more lame than your comment suggesting that Thomas, a monotheistic jew, didn't address Jesus as "my God!".
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
There is nothing more lame than your suggesting that Thomas a monotheist addressed Yahshua as a mere "God" since he never spoke a word of English! LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
He didn't refer to JESUS (sorry, I don't speak hebrew) as a "mere" God. He called JESUS "HO THEOS" (THE GOD)
You've been schooled. Now repent!
October31st1517 2 years ago
Hmm! That's strange! Satan is also referred to in the Greek as 'HO THEOS'! You do not seem to be catching on too fast here to your own schooling! You must really be slow! Maybe you should ask about special class! LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Yes I am FULLY aware that Satan is HO THEOS. However we bible students need to take something into account. Let me show you a new word. CONTEXT!
Satan is the HO THEOS of this world.
In the case of Jesus "Thomas SAID TO HIM, The Lord of Me and HO THEOS of Me".
Notice this statement that Thomas is making is being directed to JESUS.
Your argument has been refuted.
October31st1517 2 years ago
Ha! You thought context was a new word? Context is an old word! Older than you! You finally got to knowing this word? Now you need to no it's meaning! LOL!
Note that in the Greek that Thomas did not specify 'HO THEOS' as the "HO THEOS of or in Heaven."
Note that in the context that Thomas "answered". What was the question?
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
The new word was for you since you did not seem to know it's meaning or at least you were ignoring it all together, which would show your dishonesty.
Who did Thomas Call his Lord & HO THEOS? Who was that statement being directed to?
October31st1517 2 years ago
What the hell made you think that I did not know of the word 'context' and it's meaning? Certainly you have not been paying much attention to what I have been saying here or you would have known that I knew.
Did Thomas Call Yahshua "God"?
frank4yahweh.xangaDOTCOM/715042959/did-thomas-call-yahshua-god
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Your dodging the question.
Who did Thomas Call his Lord & HO THEOS? Who was that statement being directed to?
October31st1517 2 years ago
No, I did not dodge the question. You were not paying attention and missed my answer. LOL!
To tell you the truth other than what I believe, this would be a question for the translators, but since those who initially translated are dead and gone, you will be hard-pressed to find out who they were referring to. Then there is the question that you might pose to the translators and editors after them. Were they completely honest in their translating and editing?
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Were they completely unbias in their translating and editing? Did they have access to the most ancient manuscripts to determine proper translation and editing. Is it possible that they could have intentionally or intentionally mistranslated words here and there? What I choose to do in determining what is truly being said, is to take the whole context of what is being said into consideration and weighing the evidence. In so doing, I have concluded that without a doubt Yahshua is not Yahweh. ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I have concluded this because of my daily study of Scripture. In my study and reading of the so called "New Testament", I see the promised and prophesied Messiah being born or coming into existence. I see that he is given a special name by his and our Heavenly Father and Creator. I see him in his proclaiming the glad tidings of his and our Father Yahweh future Kingdom. I see Yahshua communicating ["praying"] FROM EARTH to his and our Heavenly Father WHO IS IN HEAVEN.
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I see that Father Yahweh has given his son Yahshua men from the earth to also proclaim the glad tidings of Father Yahweh's future Kingdom. I see them all as one asking those of the earth to turn from following in their own ways and encouraging them to turn from disobedience of Father Yahweh's teaching ["sin"] and setting an example in obedience to Father Yahweh. I see Yahshua as an obedient servant of his and our Father Yahweh unto death and see the apostles and his disciples doing the same. ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I could go on and on about what I have learned from studying this portion of the Scripture which refers to many of the fulfilled prophecies of the promised Messiah. How he and the apostles gave their lives that we of future generations could also know of our Heavenly Father and Creator's way that He has set before us.
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I know how this is related to what the prophets of old have taught and how they also given their own lives so that the glad tidings of Father Yahweh's future Kingdom would be proclaimed to future generations of ALL Nations and how we also may be a part of it as children (sons and daughters) of the Most High through obedience. I learned of the faith that was once and for all delivered unto them and their belief in the coming promised Messiah. I know from context that he did not exist back then.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
I know from the context of the so called "Old Testament" that it was Father Yahweh ALONE Who is the creator of the Heavens and the Earth and ALL things in them and that there was no Redeemer beside Him. I know by comparing these two portions of Scripture that Father Yahweh anointed and appointed His son Yahshua to reign as King and had given him ALL power (authority) in Heaven and in the Earth. I see by comparison that before Yahshua Kings and priests were anointed and appointed to rule. ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
I see by comparing theses two portions of Scripture that these Kings and Priest were the spokesmen of Father Yahweh's word and that Yahshua is the spokesman of Father Yahweh's word in this last time period. I see from the context as a whole that there is only one Heavenly Father and Creator Yahweh and that in this last time period that there is only one Master whom Father Yahweh Himself has given ALL power and authority to. Yahweh has even given him the authority over sin and death.
Cont. ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
Yahshua has given all esteem to Father Yahweh as we also should do in example. Yahshua is our head and Father Yahweh is the Supreme Head over Yahshua and us all. Father Yahweh and His son Yahshua are not equal for Yahshua himself said parabolically that a servant is not above his master and that the Father is greater than he. Yahshua was and is most certainly a humble servant of his and our Father Yahweh.
Cont. ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 3
In the end time after Yahshua's 1,000 year reign, he will also be in complete subjection to Father Yahweh that Yahweh may be all in all and reign as King Supreme over the new Heavens and the new Earth. HalleluYAHWEH! (Praise be to Yahweh!).
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 3
There is nothing more Lame than reading John 20:28 and not believing that Jesus is YHWH.
October31st1517 2 years ago
There is nothing more lame than reading 20:28 and believing "Jesus IS YHWH!" LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
John 5:17-18 makes it clear that what John means by Jesus being the Son of God is that Jesus is equal with God.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
This was the Jews false accusation that he was breaking the Sabbath and making himself equal with Yahweh. Yahshua was not breaking the Sabbath in accordance with his and our Heavenly Father and Creator's teaching and he most certainly did not believe that he was equal with Father Yahweh since he had clearly said that the Father was greater than he.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
John does not tell us that was false accusation. In fact they were correct because John tells us Jesus was God in 1:1 and John wants us to call Jesus our God just like Thomas did.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
He never tells us in 1:1 "Jesus was God" and never says 'I want you to call Jesus our God just like Thomas did.' Your so called "facts" are nothing but perversions of what he said. Yahshua breaking the Sabbath was most certainly a false accusation made by the Jews. Yahshua would never disobey his and our Father Yahweh's teaching (torah, law, commandment, instruction) concerning the observance of the Sabbath. If he did he himself would become a sinner. I follow Yahshua, not the accusing Jews!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Carefully selected, doctrinally biased translations do not change the original text. The insertion of 'man' in to this sentence structure is totally erroneous & misleading. A close rendering of part of this verse is 'And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ.' - then comparing 1 JOHN 2:24 - so if we are also to be in union with the Father also does that make us God?
dunklaw 2 years ago
The insertion of "[Man]" in the Amp in 1 Jn 5:20 is justified by the grammar. Comparing the construct of 1 Jn 2:24 to 1 Jn 5:20 is comparing apples to oranges. Your argument is irrelevant.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I think you better look these in an interlinear - it is very relevant!
dunklaw 2 years ago
explain how it is relevant.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Can you quote any other scriptures where the Holy Spirit spoke?
dunklaw 2 years ago 7
Why are you looking for quantitative evidence? If God says something once, it's true. If He says something twice it's true, If He says it 10000, it's true. If God says it it's true. You are just looking for reasons not to believe.
October31st1517 2 years ago
If you can prove what you are saying purely from scripture then I will believe.
So was Acts 13:2 just a turn of phrase or was it in direct contradiction to John 16:13 - Jesus own words? How can you possibly claim that your belief is base squarely on scripture?
dunklaw 2 years ago 7
dunklaw, Other Scriptures in Acts that show the Holy Spirit consciously speaking with intelligence are:
Acts 8:29; 10:19; 21:11; 28:25
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Interesting - so are you saying that these accounts directly contradict John 16:13?
Acts 8:29 & 10:19 do not say that the HOLY spirit spoke. Acts 28:25 clearly states that the holy spirit spoke THROUGH. This just leaves Acts 21:11. Interesting how all these occurrences are from only one book - ACTS.
And since the book was written by Luke & this verse & 13:2 is referring to Paul & Saul (third person - after the fact accounts) it is hardly conclusive as to being literal.
dunklaw 2 years ago 4
dunklaw, You need to explain your point. What does it matter HOW the Holy Spirit speaks? The fact of the matter is that the Holy Spirit speaks which shows He is a person and Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit in the pronoun "He" which means Jesus thought of the Holy Spirit as a person.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
It is not unusual in the Scriptures for something that is not actually a person to be personalized or personified.Wisdom is personified at Matthew 11:19 & Luke 7:35, where it is depicted as having both 'works' and 'children.' The apostle Paul personalized sin and death and also undeserved kindness as 'kings.' (Ro 5:14, 17, 21; 6:12) - (cont.)
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, John used "with (greek: pros)" in Jn 1:1 which expressly communicates that John meant the Word to be a person with God. And if that is not enough for you he also said the Word "was" God. That is irrefutably a literal person not a personification or figure of speech. Do you think "God" is a figure of speech and not an actual person? John expressly says the Word was God.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I am not even going to go to waste my time on that old chestnut. Especially since John was probably quoting from the Rig Veda - And the Sanskrit say 'and a divine one was the word'.
dunklaw 2 years ago
What does the Veda, Sanskrit or little green men from Mars have to do with the Gospel of John? Your argument is irrelevant to this discussion.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Many scholars would disagree with you.
dunklaw 2 years ago
(cont.) - He speaks of sin as 'receiving an inducement,' working out covetousness, seducing, and killing. (Ro 7:8-11) Yet it is obvious that Paul did not mean that sin was actually a person.
dunklaw 2 years ago
In a large number of cases the expression 'holy spirit' appears in the original Greek without the article, thus indicating its lack of personality.—Compare Ac 6:3, 5; 7:55; 8:15, 17, 19; 9:17; 11:24; 13:9, 52; 19:2; Ro 9:1; 14:17; 15:13, 16, 19; 1Co 12:3; Heb 2:4; 6:4; 2Pe 1:21; Jude 20, in interlinear translations.
dunklaw 2 years ago
If the Holy Spirit is not a person then explain why Jesus refers to Him as a person (Jesus uses the pronoun "He") and the Holy Spirit can feel grieved? If the Holy Spirit is only some kind of breath then does your bad breath feel grieved when you attack it with mouth wash?
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Have a look a 1 Corinthians 2:12 & think about it.
Have a look at 1 Tim 3:16 - 'was declared righteous in spirit' - not THE spirit as some translations put it - it is telling us that he was justified by his ACTIONS - it's really not that complicated.
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, Both 1 Co 2:12 and 1 Ti 3:16 render "Spirit" capitalized meaning a person, a proper noun.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Funny how none of the many bibles I have on esword use capitals for 'spirit of the world' IN 1 Co 2:12 but a few ( A MINORITY) do for 'spirit which is of god' - translation bias & interpretation? - DEFINITELY!
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, pull your head out of the sand. Jesus called the Holy Spirit "He" not 'it'. So now you're calling Jesus a liar.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
The Set Apart Spirit Is An 'It', Not A 'He'.
frank4yahweh.tripodDOTCOM/HolySpiritAnIt.html
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Jesus says the Holy Spirit is a person:
John 15:26 (NLT) "But I will send you the Counselor—the Spirit of truth. He will come to you from the Father and will tell you all about me".
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
The Messiah NEVER said or explained "The Holy Spirit is a person." Pull you head out of the sand there jeffery0662 and note the "QUOTATION MARKS" and your use of the word 'says'.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, There are no quotation marks around the pronoun "He" when Jesus uses that pronoun to describe the Holy Spirit. Jesus called the Holy Spirit a person when He called Him a "He". You are calling Jesus a liar.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I never said that there were any quotation marks around the pronoun he. If you shear the wool from your eyes you would see what I was referring to were the quotation marks in YOUR SAYING that Yahshua SAID "The Holy Spirit is a person." He never SAID or explained such a foolish thing as this. Yahshua TRANSLATION is also said to have refered to a sword in personification. Are you asking us to believe that a sword is also a person? We are not so foolish!
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
"Holy Spirit" is refered to as 'he' IN TRANSLATION, not because Yahshua referred to IT as 'he'.
Compare The Following Translations Of John 1
1. All things were made by it (Tyndale, 1534)
2. The wordeÖAll things were made by the same (Coverdale, 1535)
3. All things were made by it and without it nothing was made (Matthews Bible, 1537)
4. All things were made by it and without it was made nothing that was made (The Great Bible, 1539)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
5. All things were made by it (Taverner NT, 1540)
6. All things were made by it(Whittingham, 1557)
7. All things were made by it (The Geneva Bible, 1560)
8. All things were made by it (Bishops Bible, 1568)
9. All things were made by it (Tomson NT, 1607)
10. Nor can anything be produced that has been made without it [Reason] (John LeClerc, 1701)
11. The wordÖthrough the same all things were made (Mortimer, 1761) Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
12. In the beginning was WisdomÖAll things were made by it (Wakefield NT, 1791)
13. The WordÖAll things were made by it (Alexander Campbell, founder of the Church of Christ, 1826)
14. The WordÖAll things were formed by it (Dickinson, A New and Corrected Version of the NT, 1833)
15. All things were made by it (Barnard, 1847)
16. Through it [the logos] everything was done (Wilson, Emphatic Diaglott, 1864)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
17. All things through it arose into being (Folsom, 1869)
18. All things were made through it (Sharpe, Revision of the Authorized English Version, 1898)
19. All things were made by the Love thought (Goddard, 1916)
20. All things came into being in this God-conception and apart from it came not anything into being that came into being (Overbury, 1925)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
21. All came into being through it (Knoch, 1926)
22. The wordÖthe living expression of the Fathers thought (Blount, Half Hours with JohnsGospel, 1930)
23. The word was god (C.C. Torrey, The Four Gospels, 1933)
24. Through the divine reason all things came into being (Wade, The Documents of the NT Translated, 1934)
25. Without it nothing created sprang into existence (Johannes Greber, 1937)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Look at the original greek of John 3:8
8the Spirit where he willeth doth blow, and his voice thou dost hear, but thou hast not known whence he cometh, and whither he goeth; thus is every one who hath been born of the Spirit.'
1 This shows the Holy Spirit is a Person.
2 This shows the Holy Spirit is sovereign.
You cannot refute this passage Will you accept the Deity of the Holy Spirit now?
October31st1517 2 years ago
This is not the ORIGINAL GREEK! Hell no! I will NEVER accept "the Deity of the Holy Spirit"! Did you really believe that I would accept such foolisness from a fool such as you? LOL!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, You better accept the Holy Spirit's Deity. Paul tells us that the Holy Spirit is Yahweh in 2 Cor 3:16,17. Paul is alluding Ex 34:34 use of YHWH. The Holy Spirit=YHWH
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I do believe that Yahweh's set apart spirit is in fact Himself. I simply do not believe that His set apart spirit is a separte being apart from Himself as a Trinity as Trinitarians believe or as a Twinity as the Dualist believe. Yahweh's set apart spirit and His son are not three or two "Gods" or "Deities" united as one as separate beings apart from Father Yahweh. Father Yahweh's son did not pre-exist his birth and was not a creator or a co-creator with Father Yahweh in the beginning.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Isa 48:16
"And now the Lord GOD has sent Me, and His Spirit."
NASU
The speaker refers to himself as the one who is responsible for the creation of the heavens and the earth. It is clear that he cannot be speaking of anyone other than God. But then in verse 16, the speaker refers to himself using the pronouns of I and me and then distinguishes himself from two other personalities. He distinguishes himself from the Lord YHVH and then from the Spirit of God.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Please refer to my response to your other post in saying "Is 48:16 is additional proof the Holy Spirit is a separate person from YHWH".
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
That's because you are damned Frank. Paul tells us in 1 Cor 12:3 that only those who have the Holy Spirit in them can say Jesus is YHWH and in Rom 10:9 that only those who confess with their mouth that Jesus is YHWH will be saved. You are damning yourself to hell Frank
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Damn you jeffery0662! It's your Hell", you burn in it!
I confess that Yahshua is Master, not Yahweh. Father Yahweh made His son Yahshua Master in giving him ALL power (authority) in Heaven and in Earth.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
If this verse as jeffery0662 would have us interpret it makes sense to you, you are deceived just as he is:
Ephesians 3:14 For this cause I bow my knees unto the Father of our [YHWH] Jesus Christ, ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank, Paul was not saying Jesus is not YHWH in Eph 3:14 because in Eph 4:8 referring to Jesus, he alludes to Ps 68:18 where YHWH" ascends on high.." again clearly calling Jesus YHWH. Paul repeatedly tells us in his corpus that YHWH is Jesus.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Again, you show your stupidity! I never said "Paul was not saying Jesus is not YHWH" in Ephesians 4:8. Shaul never had to make it clear that Yahshua is not Yahweh for the plain and simple fact that I had pointed our earlier, noone ever believed or even thought that Yahshua was Yahweh at that time. Shaul at no time clearly called Yahshua Yahweh and he most certainly NEVER REPEATEDLY told anyone or tells us in his corpus that Yahweh is Yahshua ["Jesus"].
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Does 1 Cor 12:3 say that? 'Therefore I would have YOU know that nobody when speaking by Gods spirit says: Jesus is accursed! and nobody can say: Jesus is Lord! except by holy spirit.'. BTW no one is going to burn and be tormented anywhere - Ecclesiastes 9:7-10.
dunklaw 2 years ago
You seem to be confusing spirit (Pneuma - wind) with Holy spirit - these are not the same. Example Pneuma is where the modern word pneumatic (wind/air moved) tools comes from. Holy spirit which originally comes from the Hebrew 'qôdesh' (special) 'rûach' (wind / breath) - a special wind or a special motivating force.
dunklaw 2 years ago
"You seem to be confusing spirit (Pneuma - wind) with Holy spirit "
Here is the literal greek translation.
the Spirit where he willeth doth blow, and his voice thou dost hear, but thou hast not known whence he cometh, and whither he goeth; thus is every one who hath been born of the Spirit.'
John 3:8
It Gives personal pronouns to the Holy Ghost. Not only that but it shows His sovereignty.
October31st1517 2 years ago
Then can you please explain why ASV, Bishops, CJB, Geneva, IGNT, KJV-1611, KJV, NIV, NKJV, NLT all translate John 3:8 as 'the WIND where he willeth doth blow'?
dunklaw 2 years ago
Also these bibles say 'it' not 'he'? in John 3:8.
dunklaw 2 years ago
What is the 'spirit of the world' at 1 Cor 2:12?
What is the 'spirit of weakness' at Luke 13:11?
What is the 'spirit of Jesus' at Acts 16:7?
What is the 'spirit of holiness' at Romans 1:4?
Do you want me to list more?
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, In Jn 3:8 John was not having Jesus say that Christians are born again by literal" wind". I believe your conversion experience was a false one based on a lot of "hot air" but a genuine new birth comes from the Holy Spirit.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Ancient Hebrew is a concrete language (no abstracts) unlike Greek. When it uses the term wind/breath it is referring to its function - We might say 'the wind in ours sails' - the motivating force power that makes all living things animate. See James 2:24 - we need to have motivating force to produce works. See the cross comparison in verse 26. Being born again is the gift God gives through his 'Special active force' - Holy Spirit.
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunlaw, As I just explained, an impersonal active force has never argued a defense case for someone in a court of law. And since Jesus said the Holy Spirit is "another Counselor" from Himself then you are calling Jesus another impersonal force instead of a Person.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
The fruits of action can argue a case just as the physical evidence can argue a case - does a smoking gun need to speak or be alive?
Jn 14:16 in a litteral translation does not say councillor but actually say's 'another paraclete (comforter).' Greek., allon parakleton, masculine. Therefore it does not indicate conversation or intelligent interaction.
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, Study what "paraclete" was in ancient Greek. It meant a lawyer. Lawyers are people.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Paraclete (lat. paracletus) comes from the Koine Greek word παράκλητος (paráklētos, "one who consoles, one who intercedes on our behalf, a comforter or an advocate").
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunlaw, are you blind to your own words? Look at what you typed, "one who...one who..." A "who" is a person. This particular person is a lawyer who intercedes in front of a judge on behalf of his client. This is also seen in 1 Jn 2:1 of Jesus "who speaks to the Father in our defense". Impersonal forces have never been lawyers who speak on behalf of their clients.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Since God himself is a Spirit and is holy and since all his faithful angelic sons are spirits and are holy, it is evident that if the 'holy spirit' were a person, there should reasonably be given some means in the Scriptures to distinguish and identify such spirit person from all these other holy spirits.
dunklaw 2 years ago
It would be expected that, at the very least, the definite article would be used with it in all cases where it is not called 'Gods holy spirit' or is not modified by some similar expression. This would at least distinguish it as THE Holy Spirit. But, on the contrary, in a large number of cases the expression 'holy spirit' appears in the original Greek without the article, thus indicating its lack of personality.
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunlaw, The context defines who the Holy Spirit is. There a large number of cases where Lord Jesus does not have the article "THE" in the greek. Does Jesus lack personality from all the other Jesus' of His day?
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Is there any other Jesus in the biblical text?
The only others I can find are at Luke 3:29 (he is already dead) & Col 4:11 but to differentiate him he is also called Jestus & neither of these are called the Christ. You are clutching at straws.
dunklaw 2 years ago
2 Cor 11:4. There were many Jesus' in the first century. The context drives the meaning not the article or absence of it.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
This is referring to the actual teaching of Jesus as opposed to any other teaching - not another literal person named Jesus. Do you think that ALL false prophets would be called Jesus? You really are getting desperate.
dunklaw 2 years ago 2
You are the desperate one because you see the references to "The Lord Jesus" without any "The" article in the greek and yet Jesus is a person. Likewise your argument is destroyed that the Holy Spirit is not a person because there is no "The" article in the greek.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Jesus =NAME & Holy Spirit = DESCRIPTION in Greek and Hebrew. It is not complicated but you seem to want to make it that way.
dunklaw 2 years ago 2
Well since you want to play that game, there is no article in the Greek for the description "The Father". Since that is not His name that makes the Father not a person either?
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
So was Jesus talking about Joseph? Common really, I think it is you who are playing games. All Jews would have known who THE FATHER is - Psalms 2:7 Proverbs 3:12 Isaiah 63:16 64:8. You just do not want to admit the obvious.
dunklaw 2 years ago
dunklaw, What is obvious is that you are wrong to claim "THE" article has to accompany a person in Greek. I proved you wrong but you would rather burn in hell than give Jesus His glory.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Oh, a very technical response. Ok, if this is a personality with a name, is the ACTUAL name 'the holy spirit' or is it 'holy spirit' or is it 'spirit' or is it 'holy'?
Remember Jesus Sir name was NOT 'Christ' (anointed one) - Leviticus 4:3 Isaiah 45:1- but he is A Christ (anointed one).
Give WHO the glory? - Philippians 4:20 - & I thought we were talking about Holy Spirit.
dunklaw 2 years ago
There are many references to "The Lord Jesus" that don't have the title "Christ". And neither do they have THE article. But the context tells us who it is. The context shows the Holy Spirit is a person.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Then please explain Mat 3:11 & Mar 1:8 & 2Cor 6:6?
As to the spirits bearing witness (Ac 5:32; 20:23), it may be noted that the same thing is said of the water and the blood at 1 John 5:6-8.
dunklaw 2 years ago
That scripture John 3:8 proves the point completely with regard to pneuma - KJV says: - The winde bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tel whence it commeth, and whither it goeth: So is euery one that is borne of the Spirit. - or more literally - The wind blows where it wants to, and you hear the sound of it, but you do not know where it comes from and where it is going. So is everyone that has been born from the spirit (wind).
dunklaw 2 years ago
26. It was in the beginning with God, by its activity all things came into being (Martin Dibelius, The Message of Jesus Christ, translated by F.C. Grant, 1939)
27. Through its agency all things came into being and apart from it has not one thing come to be (William Temple, Archbishop of Canterbury, Readings from St. Johns Gospel, 1939)
28. The energizing mind was in existence from the very beginning (Crofts, The Four Gospels, 1949) Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
29. First there was the Thought and the Thought was in GodÖHe, him (Hoare, Translation from the Greek, 1949)
30. In the beginning God expressed HimselfÖThat personal expression, that wordÖHe (J.B. Philips, NT in Modern English, 1958)
31. All was done through it (Tomanek, 1958)
32. The Word was the life principle [in creation] (William Barclay, NT, 1969)
33. This same idea was at home with God when life beganÖHe (Jordan, Cottonpatch Version, 1970)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
34. All things became what they are through the Word (Dale, NT, 1973)
35. Within the Word was life (Edington, 1976)
36. It was his last werd. Ony it come first (Gospels in Scouse, 1977)
37. By it everything had being, and without it nothing had being (Schonfield, The Original NT, 1985)
38. All things were made through the Word (Inclusive Language Lectionary, 1986)
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
39. In the beginning was the Plan of Yahweh. All things were done according to it (Hawkins, Book of Yahweh, 1987)
40. All things happened through it (Gaus, Unvarnished NT, 1991)
41. In the beginning was the divine word and wisdomÖeverything came to be by means of it (Robert Miller, The Complete Gospels, Annotated Scholars Version, 1992
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, Again John 1:3 "all things were made by HIM" (greek: autou) That is a masculine pronoun not an 'it'. You need to enroll yourself in a second grade reading remedial course so you can learn what pronouns are.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
No, I do not need to enroll myself in a second grade reading remedial course so I can learn what pronouns are. I am very well aware of what pronouns are. I even have books on English grammer in my personal library.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
John 1:3 says : - All things came into existence THROUGH him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence.
dunklaw 2 years ago
"All things" What's your point?
October31st1517 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, I can't keep this up with much longer because you are an ignorant fool. In John 16:7 Jesus said "I will send HIM" greek (autos) it's a pronoun. A pronoun is used for a person.Then in verse 8 Jesus uses another masculine pronoun (ekeinos) "When HE comes" and so on etc, etc, etc
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Comment removed
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank, Here is the original Greek for Jn 1:3: πάντα δι' αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο, καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν. ὃ γέγονεν
Westcot-Hort (the fathers of modern Bible translators) shows in this verse αὐτοῦ is a personal/possessive pronoun: genitive singular masculine
The Holy Spirit is a HE a Person.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Hey stupid! This is NOT the ORIGINAL GREEK!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Yes it is Frank. You lost this debate. I copied and pasted that straight from the Byzantine/Majority Text (2000) + Textus Receptus (1551) + Textus Receptus (1894) Westcott/Hort + Tischendorf 8th ed. v2.5. It looks like you are the stupid one here.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
If you copied and pasted this straight from these sources it is quite obvious then that this is NOT THE ORIGINAL GREEK and it is quite obvious that you are the stupid one. Anyone who believes that these sources are THE ORIGINAL are unlearned and unstable and are bound to wrest the Scripture to their own destruction. In fact, there are no ORIGINALS in existence. If you have not learned this by now, you are most certainly an ignorant fool.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I didn't say they were the original manuscripts as in the autographs. I said the original greek as in the language those obscure english translations you quoted are based on. Don't be such an assumptive fool.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I just wanted to let it be known that you were not specific in your saying "Here is the original Greek". Now I am only assuming that you are well aware that there are diverse beliefs among scholars of the Greek language of how any particular Greek manuscipt (which number over 5,600 fragments) in existence is to be translated. I have made known 41 of these as I have quoted above.
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
Now, will you foolishly continue to harp one single word that has been translated and personified into the English language as 'he' in reference to Yahweh's set apart spirit saying that it is a separate person or "Deity ("God") other than Yahweh Himself in unity with Him and ignoring the many other Scriptural reference to His set apart spirit being an 'it'?
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
Is 48:16 is additional proof the Holy Spirit is a separate person from YHWH
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
And to which of these or the many of the others translations of this verse would you like us to give reference to and ignore the complete context of Scripture as a whole?
bibleDOTcc/isaiah/48-16.htm
This verse is prophetically speaking of this or (theses) one(s) sent is (are) obviously in reference to the prophet(s) that is (are, were, or will be) sent in Yahweh's set apart spirit and most certainly prophetically speaking in reference to the greatest anointed prophet of all, His son Yahshua.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
I also forgot to mention the many spiritual messenger beings (malakim ["angels"]) that Father Yahweh sent in His set apart spirit.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago 2
Frank4YAHWEH, The Apostle Paul tells us that Jesus was more than a prophet. Paul said Jesus is YHWH Himself.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Shaul NEVER said "Jesus is YHWH Himself. " You can only wish and deceive others into believing he said this in order to promote your false, deceptive and demonic doctrines "Jesus God", God the Son, and pre-existent, creator or co-creator Jesus".
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, I have given several quotes by Paul where he quotes Old Testament passages word for word but changes the name YHWH to Jesus. How can you say Paul is not saying YHWH is Jesus? I know, because you are damned and resist obeying God.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I agree that Shaul has quoted passages from the so called "Old Testament" Scripture, but you have yet to show me any evidence where he changes the Name YHWH to "Jesus". Your saying this only shows that Kepha spoke truthfully of ones like you who are unlearned unstable and that you wrest Shaul's letters as you also the other Scriptures, unto their own destruction (2 Kepha [Peter] 3:16).
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I can in truth say that Shaul NEVER SAID "YHWH is Jesus." for the simple fact that there is no record of him SAYING such a foolish STATEMENT! How stupid are you that you can not understand this simple statement that I have just made? I have even gone as far as to even emphasize with CAPITALIZATION certain words in my pots to you and still you do not understand. Again I say to you, observe the "QUOTATION MARKS" that I have made in my posts. Now, QUOTE for me where Shaul SAID "YHWH is Jesus."
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Paul didn't come out and use the word "Jehovah" for the same reason the LXX and our modern translations don't out of reverence for the Holy Name. Instead they, like Paul, use the word "Lord" in its place. "Lord"=YHWH in these translations and Paul used the LXX translation.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
The word translated "Lord" is not always in reference to Father Yahweh but is also in reference to his son as our Master. "Lord" is also used in reference to others. It was his and our Father Yahweh that made His son Master. He gave him all power and authority in Heaven and in Earth. "Lord" does NOT equal YHWH! Until you are aware of this FACT, you will never come to the knowledge of the truth of Father Yahweh's inspired word.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank, Paul is clearly saying Lord=YHWH=Jesus in 1 Thes 3:13
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
Shaul NEVER said "Lord=YHWH=Jesus." in 1 Thessalonians 3:13.
It says:
May he strengthen your hearts so that you will be blameless and set apart in the presence of our Almighty One and Father when our Master Yahshua comes with all his set apart ones.
In fact, in no translation of this verse does it say "Lord=YHWH=Jesus."
rebelrhoads 2 years ago 2
rebelrhoads, In 1 Thess 3:13 Paul is quoting, word for word, from Zech 14:5 from the LXX version and replacing the word "Jehovah" with "Jesus". Paul does this on several occasions in his writings. Paul is definitely saying Jehovah is Jesus.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
jeffrey0662
Where in hell did you ever get the idea that Shaul was quoting word for word from the Septuagint version and that he replaced the word 'Jehovah' with the word 'Jesus'? Certainly you did not get this foolish idea from what is recorded of his actions. He most certainly would not have disobeyed the warning of not adding unto or taking away from the prophetic word. He also is most definitely not recorded as saying "Jehovah is Jesus."
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
FrankYAHWEH, I got my info from "Pauline Christology" by Gordon Fee. You can read a good portion of his book on Google books for free. You might learn something. Yes, Paul was consciously calling Jesus YHWH.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
We are not to get our doctrine for reproof and correction and instruction in righteousness from "Pauline Christology" by Gordon Fee. We are to get it from Scripture the word that has proceeded out of the mouth of Father Yahweh. No wonder you are so deceived! I have no interest in reading any portion or even one word of such rubbish! No, Shaul was not "consciously calling Jesus YHWH." Yahweh is our Heavenly FATHER and Creator and Yahshua is FATHER Yahweh's SON.
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, you can't deny the fact that Paul had so many word for word quotes from the LXX where he changed YHWH into Jesus. Paul is telling us that YHWH is Jesus.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
I deny that it is A FACT that Shaul "had so many word for word quotes from the Septuagint where he changed YHWH into Jesus." IN FACT, not once did he ever change Father Yahweh's inspired word! Shaul NEVER TOLD ANYONE "YHWH is Jesus." He NEVER is recorded in any translation of the so called "New Testament" as ever SAYING such a foolish thing as this! That is A FACT! You in no way can Lord over me in telling me what or what I can not deny! If the Scripture does not say it, then it never happened!
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
Frank4YAHWEH, You are an illiterate boob. Everyone knows Paul didn't actually use the word "YHWH" because that was considered blasphemy. But just as in today's translations, the LXX translated YHWH as "Kourios". You can't deny all of those Scriptures I posted (and there are many more) that Paul quoted referring to YHWH but Kourios (Lord) in the LXX and changed to refer to Jesus. You are purposely choosing to be an illiterate boob.
jeffrey0662 2 years ago
jeffery0662,
You are an unlearned and unstable ass! I know for a fact that Shaul was in obedience to Father Yahweh's word and set apart ("hallowed {made holy}, sanctify"), revered ("feared"), remembered, thought upon, waited upon, walked in, trusted in, loved, sought, declared (proclaimed), blessed, published, called upon, sang unto, praised, esteemed ("glorified"), made known ("manifested"), and knew the Name Yahweh.
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago
I know for a fact that Yahshua made his and our Heavenly Father's Name known unto the men that He gave him from the world.
I have made Your Name known to the men which You gave me out of the world: Yours they were, and You gave them me; and they have kept Your word (Yahchanan [John] 17:6).
For I gave them the words You gave me and they accepted them (Yahchanan [John] 17:8a).
You are one who does not accept Father Yahweh's inspired word that was delivered unto His son Yahshua.
Continued ...
Frank4YAHWEH 2 years ago