However, after reading the comments section, i realize that I forgot to divide by 5 as well. Good video, although it seems slightly easy (I still got it wrong though).
#1 potential # of 5 card hands is 52*51*50*49*48=311,875,200.this is derived from 52 different possibilities from 1st card, 2nd card could e any of remaining 51 but can't be the same as the 1st card, 3rd card any of the remaining 50, etc.
#2 13 cards in a suit,with four suits it would 4*(13*12*11*10*9)=617,760
#3 if my 1st two calculations are correct, then probability is the answer to #2 divided by answer #1 which is ~ .0009904 or 0.09904%(approximately 1 in 1000 hands you will dealt a flush)
ok, what I missed was that the cards could appear in any order, but they would still be the same hand, therefore I should have divided answers one and two by 5! = (5*4*3*2*1)= 120, that makes the new answers..
#1 2,598,960
#2 5148
#3 ~ 0.00198 or 0.198% (approximately 1 in 500 hands will be a flush)
I can see how you might forget to divide by 5! in parts 1 and 2, but even if you do, you should still get the right answer for part 3, since the 5! cancels out. Somehow you managed to mess up the division as well?
Comment removed
check2wice 4 months ago
This guy is much cooler than my statistics teacher
BastardJack 2 years ago
WTF? your an idoit
bookieko 3 years ago
its actually 1/52 x 1/51 x 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 (chances of getting of 10, ace, queen, king and jack) x 1/4 (chances of getting in the same suite)
which equals to 1/1247500800
IQ139 3 years ago
your not funneh, guy.
socomaddict41 3 years ago
I'm 11 and I got this i'm using my moms account but for
1 i got 311,875,200
2 Dhu there are 4 royal flushs I know cause I play poker
3 i got 4 over 311,875,200
I got this by
answer 1 52 times 51 times 50 times 49 times 48 = 311,875,200
answer 2 theres four suits in poker so there needs to be for royal flushs
answer 3 this one was easy there are four royal flushs in the deak so four of those 311875200 hand is four over 311875200
i'm right face the facts
diane3000 4 years ago
7
pirayu 4 years ago
Renetto where are your answers?
mathproblems 5 years ago
I meant y/x*
fnmpm 5 years ago
I got:
1. 311875200
2. 617760
3. .198079%
I solved them by doing:
1. x = 52*51*50*49*48
2. y = 13*12*11*10*9*4
3. x/y
However, after reading the comments section, i realize that I forgot to divide by 5 as well. Good video, although it seems slightly easy (I still got it wrong though).
fnmpm 5 years ago
#1 potential # of 5 card hands is 52*51*50*49*48=311,875,200.this is derived from 52 different possibilities from 1st card, 2nd card could e any of remaining 51 but can't be the same as the 1st card, 3rd card any of the remaining 50, etc.
#2 13 cards in a suit,with four suits it would 4*(13*12*11*10*9)=617,760
#3 if my 1st two calculations are correct, then probability is the answer to #2 divided by answer #1 which is ~ .0009904 or 0.09904%(approximately 1 in 1000 hands you will dealt a flush)
heresanothername 5 years ago
incorrect try again
mathproblems 5 years ago
ok, what I missed was that the cards could appear in any order, but they would still be the same hand, therefore I should have divided answers one and two by 5! = (5*4*3*2*1)= 120, that makes the new answers..
#1 2,598,960
#2 5148
#3 ~ 0.00198 or 0.198% (approximately 1 in 500 hands will be a flush)
heresanothername 5 years ago
this is correct
mathproblems 5 years ago
I can see how you might forget to divide by 5! in parts 1 and 2, but even if you do, you should still get the right answer for part 3, since the 5! cancels out. Somehow you managed to mess up the division as well?
dooglus 5 years ago