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From: EraunaoGraphe
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  • I still keep the of resting in jesus on saturday.. I also go to sunday worship sometimes, but since i have found no scripture that says he changed the sabbath to sunday i feel more comfortable keeping it on saturday

  • Thanks for sharing this.

    Really really hard to find a Christan based congregation which meets on Shabot in my home town though.

  • @xxHUNGRY4THETRUTHxx That can be a tough task. But there are about 150 Shabot-keeping denominations out there. With persistence, I'm sure that you can find one. I am blessed in that I have two churches within 20 min of my home that I can go to. Google can be helpful in this matter.

  • Thanks for your vids. Very interesting. It's amazing how many people are confused about the Sabbath.

  • Since we are grafted into the Jewish root, then we are a part of the covenant people and are not in the position to change it. Even so, the Reformation had become stalled due to the fierce violence against the Reformers by the Catholic Church, a fearful thing I am sure. God's purpose would always be to restore all of the promises and complete our understanding of all of what Jesus taught us.

  • i see the truth in what you are saying but i can't understand where the new convernant is coming in. Can you do another video on that? Again thanks

  • @sigididesign You are right - a video detailing the 'new' covenant vs the everlasting covenant is certainly needed. Some think in terms of Old Covenant vs Old Covenant and believe they are conflicting promises; this thinking is greatly flawed. Hebrews 4:2 touches upon this very thing; the gospel that was preached to "them" (the children led out by Moses, Hbr 3:16) is the SAME as is being preached to New Testament believers. Some make it harder than it is. :)

  • @sigididesign You are right - a video detailing the 'new' covenant vs the everlasting covenant is certainly needed. Some think in terms of Old Covenant vs Old Covenant and believe they are conflicting promises; this thinking is greatly flawed. Hebrews 4:2 touches upon this very thing; the gospel that was preached to "them" (the children led out by Moses, Hbr 3:16) is the SAME as is being preached to New Testament believers. Some make it harder than it is. :)

  • This is not truth! Sabbatarians simply cannot see that the Law and the Prophets AS A UNIT pointed to Christ (it did not cease until all was fulfilled by Him- Matt.5:17ff). Thereafter, all law is subsumed and transcended by Christ's higher 'law' (mediated by His Spirit). At best the Decalogue remains as a pedagogue only. The Sabbath (Rest) pointed back to deliverance from Egypt, rest in God (His Rest begun at Creation) and forward to deliverance in Christ, our Spiritual Rest (Matt.11:28)

  • @brianhyde63 I see you are saying this under part 1 of the video, as such you haven't heard the explanations I provide in the remaining parts. If you had, you would know that I discuss Matt 5:17 and 11:28 and the modern misinterpretation and application of it by mainstream Christianity. I wonder, how far in the video did you get?

  • Thanks for the vid. I really learned something. Keep up the good work.

  • I admire Christians who do as they preach, and are not afraid to go against traditions that contradict their own foundation. It take courage to go against the flow. They call it legalistic, but if one is not under the law then they are lawless. And if you willingly brake one commandment then might swell break them all. If you can't even follow your own law then how can you expect others to do the same. "my people perish because of lack of knowledge"

  • @stargirlsusan I appreciate your kind words. You are absolutely correct that going against the flow is not easy but it is a cross I cheerfully bear for the Master's glory and truth.

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    Amen to that and may the peace of The Lord be up on you :)

  • @stargirlsusan "but if one is not under the law then they are lawless."

    Is that so? "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace." Romans 6:15.

    Actually if you keep reading we not only are not UNDER THE LAW but we are DEAD TO THE LAW as well.

    Now I'm not sure if I understand your context but if you are advocating being under the law then I'd advise you to keep THE WHOLE LAW perfectly without sin, as those under the law have not Christ.

  • @Suge212 Do you believe in rebelling against the Holy Laws of God? What about the country you live in, are you under the governments laws? What about the law of gravity, are you under that law or are you floating into space? I believe in obeying the Holy and Righteous Laws of Yahuweh through Yahoshua ha Moshiach (Joshua the Messiah or Jesus el Cristo en Espanol) who gives the strength and power to obey via Ruakh ha Kodesh (the Holy Spirit). Are you into rebellion or obedience of the Word of God?

  • @yahokobbenyah No. Canada. Gravity. No.

  • "I am not come to destroy, but to FULFIL" Indeed, Christ clarifies himself in the very next verse "till all be FULFILLED" which is EXACTLY what he said he did. To understand "till heaven and Earth pass" you must understand where it is in his statement. He says for as long the Earth and heaven stand nothing shall pass from the law UNTIL it is all fulfilled, which he claims to have fulfilled himself. He isn't saying the law will stand as long as Earth and heaven do.

  • @luxuryreborn I see your point but I must ask, where doesn't Christ say He fulfilled the law? (citiation) I believe you'll find that Christ said "until ALL is fulfilled" - He didn't say until 'it is fulfilled' or more specifically 'the law is fulfilled'. Yes, Paul states that Christ is the 'end-telos' of the law but telos means goal/purpose not 'the ceasing of'. Further 'fulfilled-ginomai' indicates 'filling up, to be made full' not 'exhausted of purpose'.

  • ... My mistake, the Greek is pleroo for fulfilled.

  • Where could I find an extensive teaching that proves that Luke was a gentile?

  • @LouieG7777 Greetings brother, to be honest I do not believe Luke was Gentile. Yes, I know that I stated something along the lines of "the gentile writer, Luke" in this video but that was more a slip of the tongue than anything. I sincerely regret my mistake in that.

    After researching the question regarding Luke, I am satisfied that he was in fact a Jew. I've made every effort to listen intently to both sides of the argument but ultimately I must conclude he was Jewish.

  • @EraunaoGraphe I truly appreciate your response brother. I'm glad I found your channel.  Not everyone takes the time to teach others how to learn using critical thinking and hermeneutics. Shalom.

  • By the way, I love all of your video's for they speak the truth, you have been a blessing to me, and i thank you for them, keep up the God work, and God bless you now and forever, shalom.

  • Shalam: Shabat is not a feast because feast is religious jolly party,and Shabat is a retreat, rest from every personal activity, total retreat,but feast isn't about rest, Shabat is not a feast. The first Shabat ever kept my men was in Sha'mat 16:23-25. Abraham wasn't a sinner, what he did was necessary, Dawad pretended to be cray in the eyes of the philistinians, that was necessary, Abraham didn't keep the Shabat just because the CREATOR did made it a law for him, every thing has its own time

  • Shalam : Shabat was kept before Mt Sinai, but it wasn't kept by man or men THE EXISTENCE WAS THE ONE WHO KEPT THE SHABAT. Shabat itself ,is a proved that there is life after death, but YAHWAH can't revealed every thing to one Seer (Prophet 1samuel 9:9) alone the one who rest is not finish, he shalt raise again after his rest, and the moon shalt be seen again after it disappread, the day shalt return after the dark, who belied he shalt see 2morow, so they don't trust they shalt raise again.

  • Shalam: Turn with me to Genesis 9:3-5, then you will learn that YAHWAH told Na'ah ( Noah) to eat all animals and all plants, just he shouldn't eat their souls ( Blood -Life) Ma'sha didn't tell Pharaoh that he was going to keep shabat ,he lied to him that he was going to sacrifice to YAHWAH in the desert, which off course he was leading the people to the promise land.

  • Shalam: Abraham didn't keep the full, laws of the Tanah, he married his own sister, which is unlawful according to  the Tarah, he deceived the Egyptians, that Sara wasn't his sexual mate, Noah was told to eat all animals, just he shouldn't eat the soul (Blood) but the Tarah told us not to eat all animal, some are not for food . Noah and Abraham didn't keep the full Tarah, anyway they kept few, thats way of YAHWAH.

  • Shalom: I notice you dont refute the evidence yet merely continue to deny the obvious. Let me see if I can lend even more weight regarding Shabat before Mt. Sinai:

    In Exodus chapter 5 we find Moses contending with Pharaoh concerning allowing the people to observe a Shabat (verse 1 the word for feast is chagag & verse 5 the word for rest is shabath). Dont you see what YAHWEH is teaching us here? ...

  • His Shabat (which He established in Genesis 2:2) and His Feasts were known BEFORE Mt. Sinai. This is why YAHWEH asked Moses in Exodus 16:28 how long would they refuse to keep His torah. The obvious implication is that they knew at least part of His torah for a long time; and this event was also before Mt. Sinai. ...

  • I am not saying that Abraham was without sin in doing those things contrary to torah; David & Solomon also sinned are you saying they didnt have torah either?

    And please tell me where YAHWEH tells Noah to eat all animals.

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    Gen 9:3 Every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for you; even as the green herb have I given you all things.

  • @Myhopeisinhim And of course not every 'green herb' was edible. Even a vegetarian, like myself, while I consider plants to be food, would not consider "all" plants to be food - nope you won't catch me eating poison ivy, poison oak, etc. A careful reading would show that the phrase "even as the green herb" is restrictive in nature since not all "green herbs" are edible.

  • @EraunaoGraphe ,@EraunaoGraphe , (Genesis 9:vrs3) hopes this helps my beloved, this is the verse where YAHWEH tell's Norah and his sons that they can eat every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for them; even as the green herb have He given them all things, shalom.

  • Shalam: did Abraham kept all of the Laws of the Tarah, show me where in scripture Abraham do kept the shabat , because you refuse to agreed with me that the first shabat was observe by the YAHWAHsraham,(Israelites) in the desert, and the shabat begin at morning. come out with reference or references, show to me,that Abraham kept the shabat before Moses, and show to me also that Noah was circumcised before Abraham.

  • Shalom: In order to see that Abraham kept Torah we need to look at the evidence rather than an explicit instruction. First, in Bresheet (Genesis) 1:14 we see that Yahwah put the lights in the skies to be for signs & seasons. The word for seasons is mo`ed which means appointed times. Now look to Vayikra (Leviticus) 23:4 and youll see that the Feasts of Yah are also moed (and arent the Feasts also Shabats?).

  • So the times of the Shabats were established during Creation, back in Genesis 1:14 according to the Hebrew Masoretic Text.

    But lets go much futher: Abraham kept Yahs commandments, statutes, and laws (Genesis 26:5). The word for statutes is chuqqah which means (among other things) appointments, or something prescribed. Note that in Leviticus 23:14,21,31,41 that Yah identifies His Feasts as being statutes (chuqqah). So, if Abraham kept Yahs moed and chuqqah ...

  • ... then he must have kept the Shabbat. This is merely deductive reasoning.

    In fact, we can see many other aspects of Torah being performed prior to Mount Sinai: Abel (Hevel) offered a burnt offering of a first-born sheep on an alter yet we find no explicit commandment given directing him to do so. Noah (Noach) knew the difference between clean & unclean animals in Genesis 7:1-3 yet we find no instructions previous to this that would have told Noah the difference.

  • The point is that Genesis is not a book of law (as are the books of Leviticus, Numbers, & Deuteronomy) but is more a book concerned with origins and history; we should not attempt to use it in a manner that it was not intended.

    Do you have a rabbi than can explain these to you in a more detailed manner?

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    Are you certain? The bible says that Jesus came to fulfill that which was written of him in the law. Were there not prophecies, and shadows presented in the book of Genesis? Take, Abraham and Isaac for example, or even one of the first prophecies in the book of Genesis when God spoke with the serpent.

    The book of Genesis is part of the book of the law. The book of Exodus is also part of the book of the law, this is discovered through Jesus own words.

  • @Myhopeisinhim I am aware that Genesis is contained within Torah, and hence is part of 'the law' in that regard (on a side note: the word translated from Hebrew (to-rah) as "law" in English is better rendered 'instructions'); but its main emphasis is not of law-giving per say. Yes, there are prophecies, types & shadows in Genesis as well.

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    Thus since jesus came to fulfill the law, and in it the things that were spoken of him, then we really have no choice but to accept that the law, which was a shadow of him, included the book of Genesis.

  • @Myhopeisinhim I believe we may be having a breakdown in semantics for I clearly stated that Genesis is included in the Torah, i.e. - the "law". But the question is, "Do you understand how a book can be included in group of book dubbed "The Law" yet its main focus in not particularly of law? One can liken it to the Forward of a book; it is part of the book but does not have to discuss what the chapters of the book do.

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  • Shalam: the word day dosen't mean night, by Nehemiah closing the gate on shabat eve dosen't mean the shabat begin from the appearing of the dark, YAHWAH said Shabat day, YAH didn't say Shabat evening. Try to define the word day from Tanach point of view. Masha (Moses) told the YAHsraham (Israelites) to prepared what they will eat the next day because it will be the Shabat day, is clear from shamat ( Exodus) that shabat began when down raise Salah.

  • Shabbat Shalom, prophetkey: I must respectfully disagree with your perspective on this point. I would ask you to please see my video entitled, "Sabbath Not Just for Jews" (part 1) for a fuller explanation of why I do not believe that sh'mot (parashah B'shallach) is indicative that Shabbat wasn't observed until then. In short, Yah blessed (barak) & made holy (qadash) in B'resheet (Genesis) about 2,300 years BEFORE the collection of man (manna); are we to believe that Yah put such emphasis ...

  • on the seventh-day yet did not expect anyone to observe it for over 2,300 years? That is not consistent with a Tanach point of view. Nor can we ignore that Avraham kept Yah's mishmereth, mitsvah, chuqqah, & torah. Shabbat is clearly part of torah; if Avraham kept torah then he also kept Shabbat. I hope you see the point of consistency that is inherent in the ways of YAHWAH.

  • Shalam: @eraunaographe. You are wrong the Shabat dosen't last for 24 hr , because the word used is sabbath day and a day last for 12.5 hours. 24 hours is equal to both day and night, the scriptures didn't say both day and night, it said sabbath day. check well, day is not equal to 24 hours.

  • I don't have a problem with the day portion of Shabbat only being 12.5 hours. But Shabbat, in its entirety, is a 24-hour period. See the first parashah of B'resheet; 'yowm' can mean the strictly light portion of a 24-hr period ~or~ the entire 24-hr period; it is dependent upon context. And when we look to the context we see that "the evening AND the morning was the ___ day". Is the evening part of the light portion? Does "morning" constitute 12 hours? No to both questions. Shabbat is 24 hours.

  • Also, look to Nechemyah (Nehemiah) chapter 13 where the prophet was angered by the buying & selling that was taking place on Shabbat; when did he order the gates to Yerushalayim be locked? According to verse 19 it was when it BEGAN to grow DARK before the Shabbat. It seems pretty clear to me that according to Yah's prophet the Shabbat started at sundown.

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    Your Nehemiah example is not quite accurate......let me explain why.

    Joshua 2: 5

    "And it came to pass about the time of shutting of the gate, when it was dark,......."

    Normally the gates were closed AFTER it was dark....Nehemiah 13: 19, gives special instruction to close the gates before which was not the norm.....the problem with your evening Shabbat is that they would have ALWAYS had to close the gates BEFORE the sabbath and it couldn't have been done after dark, EVER.

  • I would have to respectfully disagree for the passage you quoted 1) was not in reference to Jerusalem, it was talking about Jericho, 2) it was Gentiles who were closing their gates, not believing Hebrews, and 3) there is no reference that the Shabbat was the reason for the closing of the gates. Further, there is no record beyond Nehemiah that the gates of Jerusalem continued to be locked for the Shabbat. So, no, the gates were not locked "always" for that was not practiced afterwards.

  • @EraunaoGraphe

    True, I stand corrected.....but let me get your take on this.....

    1Samuel 19: 11

    "Saul also sent messengers unto David's house, to watch him, and to slay him in the morning: and Michal David's wife told him, saying, If thou save not thy life to night, to morrow thou shalt be slain."

    How can tomorrow be in the morning when this conversation took place that previos nite?

  • Or....

    Mark 4: 35

    "And the same day, when the even was come.........

    Is not even the beginning of a new day?

  • Regarding the 1Sam 19:11 verse: The Hebrew word for 'morning' is 'boqer' which means 'the coming of sunrise'; it is a word that designates a particular part of a day. The word for 'night' is 'layil'; meaning 'night as opposed to day [sunlit portion of the day]'. Both of these words are used to designate parts of the 24 hr period but do not in themselves define the start & end of the period. Machar-tomorrow is relational; and can mean 'in time to come, in the future'. ... (cont)

  • In short, the passage only serves to show us that a conversation took place and night telling of danger that would come (future) in the morning (a particular part of the day). The writer clearly wasn't seeking to define when the 'day' began or to imply that 'morning' was not part of the same day in which the conversation took place.

    ... (cont)

  • As for the Mark 4:35 verse, we find Mark telling us that immediately after Yeshua explained the meaning of the parables He had told the people they all got into the boat to cross the sea of the Galil. The reference to 'same day - ekeinos hēmera' again serves in a relational sense to ensure the reader has a sense of when Yeshua calmed the stormy sea. As such, the passage does not speak to when the Hebrew day was reckoned to begin.

  • Really interesting, alot of stuff I never heard before, especially the scripture from Mathew 24:20.

    I have been trying to understand whether I should keep the Sabbath or not. Since I'm confused, i figure it is better to error on the safe side, so i been keeping the sabbath (friday night-saturday night). But recently turned down job offers because of it. What you say makes alot of since. I see no reason to change what i been doing.

  • The ordinances of day and nite have been mixed up.......

    Matthew 28: 1

    "In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week,...."

    Dawn is the exact opposite of evening......my point is a day doesn't start at nite nor does the sabbath.

    Job 7: 4

    "When I lie down, I say, When shall I arise, and the night be gone? and I am full of tossings to and fro unto the dawning of the day."

    The weekly Sabbath begins in the morning......

  • Well, I guess I was just going by Genesis and the first day of creation. Cause the first day started off in total darkness. Then God Said, "Let there be light". So always figured the light came after the dark.

    Even jews I know tend to follow this pattern.

    Also the bible says "evening and morning were the first day". Again, evening is coming before the morning.

    Heck, even when you are born, you are in your mother's womb first, then later you see light.

  • Yea your right the "Jews" do celebrate it this way but thats based on an interpretation of scripture and not on a tradition they have been following since ancient times. If Genesis said FROM evening to evening that would be one thing........but it says evening AND morning, and this doesn't equal a day by any stretch but rather they are both part of the light period called day. Remember Genesis 1: 14, the Most High gave us LIGHT to determine our days not darkness. Nonetheless, Shalom friend.

  • Well, all throughout Genesis, it says "evening and the morning were the first Day"

    Also:

    2And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters. 3And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.

    Note that God did not say "Let there be light" first. The earth exists before Light. The light was not first. The earth existed first, then light. So before the light on earth, it was dark.

  • "evening and the morning were the first Day"

    True, but a day is not a 24hr period in the scriptures.

    John 11: 9

    "Jesus answered, Are there not twelve hours in the day?...."

    The nights are attached to the day but they are actually 2 seperate entities that down run together. I mean, according to your analogy, the New Year should be celebrated in the dead of winter because there was nothing before there was something.....but the ancient New Year begins in the spring when life comes alive.

  • Just liike a day begins when life is springing forth not when its going to sleep. Ancient Israel worshipped like this,

    Psalm 113: 3

    "From the rising of the sun unto the going down of the same the LORD's name is to be praised."

    The sabbath is a daytime event not a 24hr period or something they did at nite.

  • Greetings brother,

    Actually, the Sabbath is a 24hr period and has been practised as such for centuries. I have studied and celebrated the Sabbath with Orthodox & Messianic Jews; both begin Sabbath services at sundown on Friday - for that is the beginning of the 24hr period.

    Your citation from Jn 11:9 is out of context for the subject at hand was not the Sabbath nor the length of a day - Christ was saying that men stumble when they don't have light (wisdom).

  • I hear you, but just because its been celebrated that way for centuries doesn't mean its accurate or right..... John 11: 9 was qouted just as point of historical reference of time.

  • That's cool, I appreciate that.

    One thing that comes to my mind, however, is that Jesus sought to correct many misunderstandings of God's law during His ministry; but there is no biblical record that the timing/duration of the Sabbath was ever in question by Christ. I would think that if the Israelites were incorrect in how they determined the start-time of the Sabbath that Christ would have corrected the error.

    Just a thought.

  • ...but I believe the Law & the Covenant Jesus made with the Israelites through Moses are similar, but technically two different things.

    Jesus' covenant through Moses is specifically for the Israelites, not the Chinese nor Indians nor Africans nor Europeans; so only they are required to Fulfill it.

    God's Law on the other hand, applies to every sentient life form in the Universe.

    So God's Law stands, but His Covenant with the Israelites has been replaced by a New Covenant; for Jew & Gentile.

  • Regarding Matthew 24:18

    "For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled."

    Obviously Jesus didn't take the Law itself away. Otherwise, everyone born since would be free to do whatever they want; because there would be no Law to break.

    Verse 17 is saying, He rescued us from the Punishments of the Law, by providing His Perfect Life & Death as a substitute for our imperfect life & due punishment...

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  • ps. The Sabbath still stands.

    Within the New Covenant or as a Stand Alone Commandment, I don't know?

    But the evidence is clear in Matthew 24

    20 And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the Sabbath. 21 FOR then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, NOR EVER SHALL BE.

    This is not 70AD, it's the Last Days.

    So we know the Sabbath still stands,

    from then, through today, till the End.

    Besides, it's a Great Blessing :)

  • Okay, I'm sorry - I guess I misunderstood your original post.

  • 2nd Definition @ 8 minutes14 Seconds:

    "to carry through to the end,

    to accomplish.." is the meaning of Fulfill.

    "I did not come to destroy but to fulfill."

    He fulfilled our part of the Covenant for us, and later suffered our punishment for us; both so we no longer have to.

    Because the Covenant He made with the Jews was impossible for them to keep, He became a Jew & fulfilled their end of the Covenant for them.

    Now both Jews & Gentiles are under the New Covenant; as evidenced in Galatians 2.

  • Galatians 2 never once mentions a convenant or testament.

    As for your mentioned of Christ's words, "I did not come to destroy but to fulfill" (Matt 5:17), don't forget to state the full thought - Matt 5:18 "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." So, the question is, has "all" been fulfilled? No it hasn't, hence the second definition you are point to cannot be the correct one.

  • Man does not live by bread alone but by EVERY word of God. Why do we have to make things so confusing? Our Lord said that He did not come to destroy the law or prophets what is so hard to understand about that? We are called to be Christ's disciples, we are to follow whatever we see our TEACHER is doing? No, we can't keep God's laws to be justified, but we are to keep them because we are justified. The law is holy, just, and good. Aren't we commanded to be holy, just, and good?

  • Amen brother. Amen!

  • Greetings Sir, could you show where it is commanded by Jesus or any of his Apostles that we are to keep the sabbath? Before you answer that, the point that you made about the Apostles and believers keeping it in the book of Acts can be easily addressed. The Apostles taught and met on the sabbath, because they were converted Jews. They weren't expected to abandon thier Jewish heritage just because they became followers of the Messiah. continued.......

  • .......And to quickly address your point about the fact that the sabbath is still in effect because Jesus never gave permission to set it aside before he died. This also can be easily addressed by scripture. You must understand that the New Cov. wasn't instituded until Jesus was nailed to the cross. Please Cite Colossians 2:14-17.

  • Greetings to you as well, authentic76.

    You pose very on-point questions that can easily be answered from the Bible.

    The first answer, regarding the commandment of Christ, can be found in various places. First look at Matt. 24:20 where Jesus tells His disciples to prayerfully regard the Sabbath (so as to not violate it) during an event that wouldn't happen until 70AD. It is implicit in the text that Jesus had every intention that His followers would still observe the Sabbath. continued...

  • Christ's statement in Matt 24:20 would have been nonsensical if He intended for the cross to abolish the Sabbath. Also, it must be admitted that the Bible never says that the only reason the Apostles kept the Sabbath was due to their being Jews. Such is an interpretation that is not supported by the scriptures. Besides, the Bible says there is no Jew or Greek for all are one.

    As for the passage in Col. 2:14-17, please see my video that addresses that passage - the evidense is quite compeling.

  • His Statement in the passage is not nonsensical regarding the sabbath commands because, i think the context shows that he wasn't addressing observance of the Sabbath. Now regarding the Jews and the keeping of the Law in Acts 21:20-25 you have converted Jews who as the passage says where "zealous for the law", by which they took issue with Paul regarding the rumor that he taught the gentiles against the Law of Moses. As you read through out the rest of the passage, you'll see that Paul....cont.

  • But a point that must be made is that those Jews that were zealous for the law were not condemned by Paul. In fact these same Jews are also described as being those "which believe". So they believed on Christ yet kept the law and Paul does not rebuke them. You see, there are two aspects that interplay under the overarching concept of salvation; those being justification & sanctification. God's law, at least as far as my videos go, plays a dominate role in sanctification - and that is the point.

  • Yes, and just because he didn't condemn them for keeping the law, since they were infact Jews, he made certain that the Gentile believers weren't commanded to keep the Law of Moses. This is the centerpiece of the book of Galatians. For as the scripture states in 1 Cor 7:18 " 18Is any man called being circumcised? let him not become uncircumcised. Is any called in uncircumcision? let him not be circumcised." In other words believing Jews don't have to become like Gentiles and vice versa.

  • But see, again Paul solves this dilema with the wisdom bestowed upon him by the Holy Spirit. Here is what he had to say: 1 Cor. 9:19-21 "19For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more. 20And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; "..cont.

  • 21To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the LAW OF CHRIST,) that I might gain them that are WITHOUT LAW.....****Without law clearly means the Law of Moses

  • No disrespect, but you aren't reading that verse accurately. Paul is affirming that he is NOT without the law of God because he is under the law of Christ. They are not antagonistic in relationship but complementary; in a way Paul is making the connection that both are the same. Which makes sense since Jesus stated that He only taught His Father's Law (John 15:10). Here is how the NASB translates it "though not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ".

  • I don't have a problem with the law of God being same as the law of Christ. But you must admit that the Law of Moses and the Law of Christ are two different laws. His statement in v.21 is Paul asserting that though he dealt with the Jews from the Mosaic law or with the Gentiles from the Law of Christ, he himself wasnot lawless, rather he submitted to the law of Christ, which superceeds the Mosaic law.

  • Again the New Covenant is the fulfillment of the Old, this is scriptural. However the scriptures declare SPECIFICALLY that:

    1. The Old Covenant is decayed and waxed cold has also "Vanished away". Heb 8:13

    2. The New Covenant which is the "better covenant" and a "more excellen ministryis has been established. Heb. 8:6

    Again, i ask how do you gloss over the clear text of these passages?

  • The first verse you quoted, Heb 8:13; you will of course note that the word 'covenant' is added - it is not in the original text. So what is new in reference to this verse? Look to prior verse, God is talking about His mercy towards those that are unrighteous and how He will forgive them. Contextually the subject is more likely the new "man" vs. the "old man" of sin. In verse 10 we see that the covenant is made with Israel - not Gentiles. cont...

  • The 2nd verse, Heb 8:6; discusses the primarily the priestly MINISTRY OF CHRIST. Christ, as the perfect/blameless High Priest, is the supreme Mediator. The reason His ministry is "more excellent" is because He was without sin - unlike the human priests. This is why His covenant is "better" & also because He serves in the heavenly sanctuary rather than the earthly.

    But there is no mention in any of your citations that the New Covenant did away with of God's Laws which is the point of the video.

  • Comment removed

  • Sir, why do you insist on dividing Jew from Gentile? The Bible tells us that such distinctions are meaningless (Rom. 10:12) - whatever applies to one applies to the other in God's perview.

    The book of Galatians is not a "general" book - Paul is commenting on a very precise issue and is speaking precisely to that issue. To take his words and set them into the context of 'Jews versus Gentiles' or 'Old Covenant versus New Covenant' is painting with much too broad a brush. I'll make a video on it.

  • Brother, i insist on making those divisions because scriptures does so. You just have to understand the context. Rom 10:12 is simply stating that there is no difference to God in those who believe on Christ through faith. In other words, God is no respector of persons. However, we cannot say that there are no distinctions in the flesh. For if be the case then Gal. 3:28 will mean that there are no more male and female gender, slave men or free men, Jews or Gentile races that exist....

  • ...accomodated the Jews by taking a vow and purifying himself according to the Law to prove that he was not hostile toward the Mosaic Law....However, we see in Acts chapter 15 that the "Debate" involved whether or not the gentiles should observe the Law of Moses by which Peter stated " 10"Now therefore why do you put God to the test by placing upon the neck of the disciples a yoke which neither our fathers nor we have been able to bear?" Why sould Peter make such a profound statement if...cont

  • ...the gentiles were expected to observe the law of Moses in order to be saved? Actually by his own admission. They (the apostles) nor the Fathers (the patriarchs) where able to bear that burden. I'm awaiting your response, in the meantime i will give your other video a gander.

    Peace be to you.

  • Peter was referring to the Noachide Laws that allowed the Gentiles to 'fellowship' with the Jews in the synagogue. The discussion wasn't about salvation. I talk about this facet in one of my video "Jesus is My Sabbath Rest".

    Also, I think you might be misinformed as to what a 'yoke' is. Again, this point I discuss in the aformentioned video.

  • Noachide Laws? I'm sorry, but i feel difficulty accepting that. The dispute is clearly defined in v. 5. "But there rose up a certain sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the LAW OF MOSES." By which Peter responded...v.11 "But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be SAVED, even as they.".. Why mention anything about being saved the same way if salvation wasn't the issue?

  • Ok so in Matt. 24:20 where Jesus is speaking to His disciples regarding the destruction of the temple and the end times; He says :" 20But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:"..I don't see how this statement proves that it was his intention that his followers observe the sabbath. I think this simply speaks to the inconvenience of traveling in the bad weather of winter or on the sabbath where many things would be shut down for travel...cont.

  • I believe Jesus' statement in Matt. 24:20 is self-explanatory in that Jesus didn't regard that the Sabbath day would be terminated.

    Traveling in the winter is of course a danger hence His mention of that. But in regards to the Sabbath, we must remember that what happened in 70AD was no mere travel day - it was a military attack. Even Orthodox Jews will tell you that rabbinical laws go right out the window in times of extreme danger. Hence everything would have been closed due to evacuation. ..

  • ... Travel restrictions were rabbinic in nature and aren't stated in the torah. Christ did not concern Himself or His disciples with any rabbinic teaching that was contrary to the letter or spirit of torah. His concern was the breaking of the Father's Commandment and, obviously, Jesus refers to it as being the Sabbath day in 70 AD.

  • Ok so if the rabbinical laws go out the window in times of danger, then why mention the keeping of the sabbath in the context of the military attack? It makes no contextual sense what so ever that Jesus is endorsing the termination or keeping of the Sabbath day one way or another when speaking about the destruction of the temple and the endtimes. This is why i had an issue with using this passage as proof text to support the keeping of the Sabbath.

  • "Ok so if the rabbinical laws go out the window in times of danger, then why mention the keeping of the sabbath in the context of the military attack?"

    Because the Sabbath is not a rabbinical law.

  • Responses will be forthcoming later on in the day.............Peace.

  • @EraunaoGraphe , (Genesis 9:vrs3) hopes this helps my beloved, this is the verse where YAHWEH tell's Norah and his sons that they can eat every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for them; even as the green herb have He given them all things, shalom.

  • EXCELLENT video!

    Thank you for Bible Truths my friend.

  • Thank you, LifeisaboutLove1

    These are merely insights that I've gained through study & guidance of the Holy Spirit. Most of them are simple but far-reaching in scope. I think that is one of the reasons they are overlooked by most - so simple they go unnoticed.

  • @LifeisaboutLove1, Amen my beloved Amen, Shalom!

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