Added: 4 years ago
From: soranneo
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  • 13 Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends. JOHN 15:13

    These men, most of whom were only 18-21 years old {had not even lived yet} & killed in World wars to keep us free. Why would a loving God allow these YOUNG men to die who had heard the Word, and believed when they were pinned down by enemy fire & CRIED out to God for help, and were DENIED "ETERNAL LIFE" because there was NO water for baptism. NO, I'm sorry, I can't believe that.

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  • There are no Atheists in foxholes and NO WATER either. Millions of these young men who died, much like the thief on the cross , remembered the Gospel preaching they heard and when faced with death CRIED OUT to their ONLY HOPE, JESUS. Calling on the name of the LORD in Repentance and Faith BELIEVING on CHRIST.

    21Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ. ACTS 20:21 This is the Apostle Paul's SUMMARY of his preaching.

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  • That rule for translating Greek to English, would make Acts 2:38 agree with Acts 10:43-47. Acts 11:13-18. Acts 19:2-4 and all the rest.

    After all my Scripture study on this issue of wtaer baptism it was not just the verses that convinced me, but it was the fact that adding water baptism to "Saving Faith" severly LIMITS the places a person can be saved. Faith/repenance will work anywhere, baptism will not, you need water, and someone to baptize you. Frozen areas, deserts, World wars, Planes etc

  • Acts 2:38 is the only verse that seems to say repent and be baptized for the remission of sins, BUT looking at the entire context of scripture on this subject it cannot mean that . I have studied this and wanted TRUTH not matter where it was. I would be a fool to do otherwise. I do not know greek..BUT those that do will say the "Greek Rule" for interpreting verses does not allow for baptism to go with the remission of sins in Acts 2:38 In Greek only "Repent" will work with remission of sins here

  • The context would definately support the fact that the water spoken of in John 3:5 is the water of your mother's womb that breaks when you are born the FIRST time. The second birth {Born-Again} is the spiritual birth, thus "born of water and of the spirit", we see this in verse 6 when is mentions the flesh is of flesh {mother} BORN... spirit is spirit {God}.....BORN AGAIN. This would fit because Nicodemus asked how he could go back to his mother's WOMB,and Jesus explains to him flesh vs spirit.

  • @ filolll *that should have said Phillip for Acts 8:35-38*

  • @ filolll Anyone with a Bible can read the rest of John 3. They will see near the end of John 3 Jesus & John are baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because as verse 23 puts it "the water was plentiful there, and people were coming to be baptized". I refer to baptism being H20 where God says it is & using context. In Acts 8:35-38 Paul told the Ethiopian eunich the good news about Jesus, he replied "Look here is water! Why shouldn't I be baptized?" That response to the Gospel is good enough 4 me.

  • THANK YOU SORANNEO, GREAT MATERIAL, I LOVE DR. BOB A MAN OF GOD, GOD BLESS!

  • John 3:5

    Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

    Galatians 3:26-27

    You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.

    *How does it say we get INTO Christ in the verse above?

    Acts 22:16

    And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name.

    God's Word says what it says.

  • I agree. What denomination are you from. I want to know so instead of saying I come from the true church I can tell others "no but i know loveJC777 from the denomination of ........" and they will say "oh ok than they are our brothers

  • @LoveJC777 Why don't you give the rest of John 3? Jesus makes it plain what the water deals w/. John 3:5-6 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.--The water in this passage is the amniotic fluid that gushes forth out fo the amniotic sac @ birth. Why do you assume the word baptize ALWAYS means dunked in H2O?

  • If u dont believe you don get baptized, plain and simple... Those of the Evil one dont Believe the Truth. But be(LIE)ve the (LIE)! see where your at.

  • also you brother: what Denomination are you from? So I can have peace others churches like yours who agree on the truth of baptism instead of thinking like others that one denomination has it down and is the true church.

  • Now that what I like to see we are all in one body no one can say they are the true church I dont judge others some one form COC emailed trying to tell me Im on my way to hell cause I dont attend the church of Christ I emailed and said what mumbo Jumbo its a bunch of Crap! LOL

  • In his Historical Grammar, Robertson suggested that sometimes grammar has to give way to theology (London: Hodder & Stoughton, 1919, p. 389). Is that any way to treat the verbally inspired word of God? Yet that is how Robertson sought to dispose of Acts 2:38. For shame!

  • He wants A. T. Robertson: Even the renowned Baptist scholar, A.T. Robertson, who attempted to twist Acts 2:38 into conformity with his personal theological agenda, was forced to surrender his position when discussing Matthew 26:28. Of the controversial phrase he stated: The purpose of the shedding of his blood of the New Covenant was precisely to remove (forgive) sins (Word Pictures in the New Testament, Nashville: Broadman, 1930, Vol. I, p. 210.

  • His little argument on "eis" turns right around one him: he wants Acts 2:38 to mean "be baptized 'because of' of the remission of sins. Well, the same phrase is used in Matt 26:28, "For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." So Jesus shed His blood 'because' people's sins were ALREADY forgiven. Absurd. His so-called "translations" are NOT generally accepted translations; nobody has ever heard of most of them.

  • well thats his point; he is saying the word "for" has 2 differnt meanings is the 2 verses you just qouted.

  • No, he's TRYING to say that, and I've never read of that confident, learned man making such a week argument on ANY word - guess he just had to in thsi case.

  • So you would say the same thing about Matt 3:11?

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