I debate doctrine over a microphone in paltalk: will you debate water baptism with me? My five previous debates including one with an apostolic are on my youtube channel.
Amen Amen Amen by brother. I hear u loud n clear. Of means belonging to. The name, singular of the father, Of the son, Of the Holy Ghost. One name for all three titles. God bless u!
Jesus is both of God, the Word made flesh, and of Mary, a new creature, one of a kind, the only begotten Son of God. And we have to get baptized into his death in order to be a part of Him and take part in His resurrection. The Father and the Holy Spirit didn't die for us. But people just don't want repent. Turn away from your hard heart and lust of the flesh and eyes, and God will let you see truth. He will fill you with the Spirit of Truth, which will speak out of you in other tongues.
The problem with both oneness apostolics and trinitarians is that they both believe that Jesus is God. Jesus said that God was his father. Too bad we can't have the same revelation as Peter and John. Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. The only begotten of the Father. But Jesus did say that baptism would be preached in His name. The only name given under heaven whereby we must be saved. Repent and get baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. Pretty simple.
You didn't find that in your KJV bible. Is not King James version the only accepted and infallible form in your belief. My guess is that your source likely has "Word Aflame" stamped on the back. The word of God is infallible and not limited to "Word Aflame" publications.
@bobbo345 That's very Christian of you Mr. Bobbo. You know when I first saw your video and read your post I actually thought "I believe this kid is sincere at heart even if he is misguided". Thanks for clearing up my misconception of you:) I disagree with you on Oneness/Trinitarian theology, but I'm not going to resort to calling you "pathetic" or any other names. I seek to bring God Glory period. Psalm 73:8 They scoff, and speak with malice; in their arrogance they threaten oppression. NIV
@hnixon83 what's pathetic is that instead of commenting on what was actually said to you, your best response is to attack a random book publisher and make a misguided insinuation that oneness apostolic's only use the KJV.
that's the best you can come up with? you didn't even answer the point that SiegfriedElric made. It's just sad when that's the best answer you can give to defend you beliefs. Pathetic.
@bobbo345 It is the word of God and the Holy Spirit which abides in me that I use to defend my beliefs. What's to answer regarding Siegfried's beliefs? After all, he didn't sight his source. You even asked him if for it. I'm not attacking any random publisher nor is my KJV only insinuation misguided. I was raised UPC, went to Bible college, etc. I've never met a UPC person that didn't preach KJV only. If you give me a ligitimate question or a reliable sighted source then I'll answer.
@bobbo345 Speaking of which, please explain 1 Cor 15:24-28 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.”[c] Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.
@bobbo345 (Continued) 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. -NIV- Has the last enemy been destroyed yet or are we still awaiting for the blessed hope—the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ? If you'd like to answer this with a biblically based explanation I'd be happy to hear it, "really". Otherwise, I don't have the time nor the energy for sarcasim or bashing.
For those who argue that Matt 28:19 means name not title, I encourage you to look up the Greek word for name "onoma". It may be of surprise to you that it does in fact mean "title" as well reputation, names, named, etc. In the name means BY THE AUTHORITY OF! In Acts 2:38 Peter was relaying the commision given to him "by the authority of Jesus". We are baptized "into" Christ his death and resurrection. Stop making it about the Formula! It's about the baptism "not the formula spoken by MAN!
Praise God for truth brother.....being baptized in Jesus name, is such a blessing, the scriptures say, we are to be baptized"in the name of Jesus Christ. Not the titles, why would any one take a chance like that, when even the scripture says, in the name of: the father, the son, and the holy ghost....what is that name???? "Jesus " John 5:43, 44 says he came in his fathers name and ye received him not, John 20:31 " but these are written that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the son of
@fionnlagh1 - Good question. Better question is how would 3 persons who are supposed to be coequal, coeternal, etc as per the Trinitarian theology, be anything but. You where scratching your head about Jesus saying the Father was Greater. How could He be greater if the the 3 persons are equal? The answer is simple. Read 2 Timothy 3:16 - God was Manifest in the FLESH. The Flesh referred to the Son. He was God and Man. The Man/Son became the curse. Pray that God will open your eyes to see
The Apostoles where Jewish and knew and understood that there is BUT one word/name which means salvation,which is Yesha=Yeshua=Jesus.Any other word/name does NOT mean Salvation.Col 3:17 states to do ALL deeds and WORDS in Jesus name,only.Acts :12 says NO other Name/word given for salvation.
@bhebrews1214 He did. Read the parallel accounts of Jesus' ascension in the other gospels...put the puzzle together, you will find that he did command them to use his name. moreover the context of this passage makes it clear..."v18 All power is mine", "V20 teach them what...I...have commanded you". The lord clearly puts emphasis on himself,and his name.
Baptize in the NAME of Jesus Christ. ---- Does this makes sense if "Name" means what a person is called? Its like saying "David's Name is David" --people would look at you funny if you said that.
"Name" dealing with baptism means "authority" NOT what a person is called.
@Judgement220 according to the dictionary, of is a preposition which has many usages. However, in this context, one may only utilize one or two of these usages. #5 used to indicate apposition or identity and #7 used to indicate possession, connection, or association. Similar to one looking at a man with his son perhaps at the park and saying what is the name of that father there. The NAME OF the Father, AND OF the Son, AND OF the Holy Ghost. Acts 4:10-12 one name
polytheism at its finest lol. Your thoughts on the Godhead are one of the main reasons why Jews don't believe in "christianity" as they are monotheistic. you like to say that you're monotheistic, but in truth are polytheistic. Please describe the difference between my monotheistic and the Jews. Then describe the diff between your monotheistic and the Jews. You're done dude, give it up!!!
@lunatik4 Instead of answering my questions with intelligent views in scripture, you come at me with dogmatism. The Jews are going to look at you like you are crazy because both the Jews,Muslims, and myself will come to you and say how can the Father curse himself as in Gal 3:13. How can the Father forsake himself as in Matthew 27:46? Are you saying the Father committed suicide on the cross? I would love to hear you answers to those verses, please convince me that the Son IS the Father.
@Judgement220 The jews don't believe in the new testament, so please answer my question first!! Jews are truly monotheistic, mainstream christianity like yourself is polytheistic. Plain and simple, you can't even begin to argue. A jew would laugh in your face if you described 'one' god being in 3 persons!! Other than not knowing that jesus is the messiah, they have the same monotheistic views as i do, not yours. Please show me the trinity in the old testament.this will be interesting!
@lunatik4 First of All God is in Heaven, that can't change:
"Know therefore this day, and consider it in thine heart, that the LORD he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else" Deut 4:39
The theme in the Old testament is that God Dwells in Heaven and it never changes, the notion that the Most High in ALL his Holiness and power leaves heaven is an unbiblical teaching. I just can't find any scripture to support that notion.
@lunatik4 The issue with your doctrine is that you don't understand what constitutes a "God". You have the right to call trinitarians polythiestic if we believe that the Father, Son, and holy SPirit all have separate authorties. A "God" must have separate authority from everything else, This is not the doctrine of the Trinity. The Doctrine of the Trinity teaches that the Father is the supreme head of the Godhead; The Son and the Holy Spirit can only have authority in line to the Father.
@Judgement220 i fully understand what constitutes my God in relation to the Godhead. Your idea is the opposite of the Jews and is polytheistic. Even in trinitarian churches, you'd be surprised how many do not hold your ideas. Most hold my view and they look at me like i'm crazy when i describe the Godhead in your terms. Its rarely discussed in most churchs! You are a true trinitarian, i am a true One God believer....literally! As i think you know, i think we'll have to agree to disagree :)
@lunatik4 You should care what' s in the Bible. The dilimma you have to face is how does the Father have to face his own wrath, Like Jesus did? Jesus is called the Lamb of God by John the Baptist, are you saying that the Father is the Lamb? If you have a sacrifice you need a Slayer and the Father is the slayer, the very Gospel you "believe" in is in peril with your view. God told Abraham to sacrifice his SON not himself!
@MrGhettown I'm a trinitarian and would like to know the oneness perspective of the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus. If you are a oneness apostolic, explain why if Jesus is called the Lamb of God showing that the Father is the slayer and Jesus is the Lamb, Did the Father curse himself, did the Father become Unholy, Did the Father commit suicide?
Here's the deal... God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient. However God chose to become as a mortal man and take all of the sins of man upon himself. God did not pass the buck to some other deity or "person" or demigod. God put on a human body (like an avatar) and became a man tempted in all ways like a man and became sin for mankind himself. "I, [even] I, [am] the LORD; and beside me [there is] no saviour." Isaiah 43:11. Yahweh said that He is the only savior.
@fionnlagh1 The Main problem with "Oneness" theology is the Death and Curse of Jesus. The Father is the Greatest, Greater then the Son, How can the Most High "Become Sin"? Didn't Jesus say the Father was greater then him in John 14:28? Didn't Jesus became a curse for us on the Cross Gal 3:13? God is all powerful but God has his limits, God cannot become Sin because nobody is above him, its impossible. I agree that Jesus IS God, but explain, how can he be the Father and become a Curse?
@Judgement220 you believe in three. when you go to heaven you will see three thrones. when you pray you pray to three different gods, one at a time. you believe that "1+1+1=1", we understand that "1+1+1=3" which is why we cannot accept god as a trinity.
"He who overcomes, I will grant to him to sit down with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down WITH My Father on His throne"
Speaking of thrones, This is Jesus speaking from heaven to John. He said He sat down WITH HIS FATHER On HIS THRONE, this makes the Father a separate person from Jesus.
Jesus said My throne and HIS Throne, denoting 2 persons. Jesus and the Father always refer to each other as separate persons.
"And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn." Zac 12:10
God is in heaven and always is in heaven, saying he will be pierced (a human being), and send His Spirit, while he is still in heaven 3 persons 1 God.
@lunatik4 The Father is Greater then the Son and the Spirit, the Spirit and the Son DO NOT have a separate authority from the Father so of course we can say 3 person 1 God, for Jesus said:
"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. " John 5:19
To have separate Gods you must have separate authorities, this is not the trinity.
@lunatik4 Look throughout the Old Testament, how can God say this through prophets like:
"And the Spirit of the LORD will come upon thee, and thou shalt prophesy with them, and shalt be turned into another man." 1 Sam 10:6
How can The Spirit of the Lord say he is in Heaven like Deut 4:39 while a prophet prophesies? The Spirit of The Lord is a person just like Jesus. There is always a co-existence between them.
@davidslife1975 I'm Afraid you don't get what I'm Saying. Read what Peter says:
"Baptize in the NAME of JESUS" Look at the phrase "NAME of JESUS", Peter did not say "Name of HIM" or "Name of Christ" which is a pronoun or title,but said the actual name instead of a pronoun or title like "Name of my co-worker" or "Name of My Friend".
If Name means what a person is called are you saying that "Jesus" is a title and not a name.
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. "
"Notice Begotten of the Father", this means that the Father is not the Word, but the Speaker. The Word is begotten of the Speaker, just like the Son is begotten of the Father.
Therefore, when you have a Speaker and the Word, The Speaker can think and don't have to say everything he is thinking, Therefore the Word in itself does not present everything what the Speaker is thinking. This explains why Jesus doesn't know everything, Mark 13:32, Matthew 24:36, Acts 1:7.
@Judgement220 Jesus was called the "Son of man" according to his manhood, and the "Son of God" according to his Godhood. Kind of like man on the outside, God on the inside, because he is God in the flesh(1 timothy 3:16) If you're saying that there's 3 co-existent, co-eternal, co-substantial persons in the Godhead, that would be incorrect. The Jews know that there is only 1 God, literally. They do not accept mainstream 'christianity' because it is polytheistic, not monotheistic. Big difference!
@lunatik4 Sin does not kill anybody, Sin is what you do, its not a person. The Father Kills everybody. You got theological issues here:
"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Matthew 27:46
@Judgement220 The bible says "when sin is finished, it bringeth forth death" when Jesus was on the cross, he said "it is finished" and he gave up the ghost. You really need to check your theological theories. Your'e forgetting that as a man, he felt forsaken, not his deity. Jesus is God, he's not subordinate to the Father. if you believe that, you really have some theological issues!! A small god praying to a bigger god. Ummmm, well......NO
@lunatik4 As I said, How can the Father commit suicide? How can the Father curse himself? How can the father get tired and has to eat? Jesus is God, but he is subordinate to the Father because he said so:
"Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I." John 14:28
I'm waiting, how can the Son be the Father Himself?
"But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.Do not err, my beloved brethren" James 1:14-16
Read in context, James was not referring to the Cross, but the full maturation of Sin which is Death, which happens today, we all sin and will die physically. Christ died so we don't die a "second death"
@lunatik4 This is why its makes no sense to believe that Jesus is the Father:
"Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree: " Gal 3:13
"44The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? "Matt 22:44-45
Jesus quoted Psalms 110:1, saying the LORD said to MY LORD. Co-existence told in prophesy.
@lunatik4 Did you teach yourself that Isaiah 9:6 says that Jesus is the Father? Well Apostle Paul taught me this:
"For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. " 1 Cor 15:27-28
U are right! NOBODY WAS BAPTIZED IN THE TITLES, FATHER< SON< HOLY GHOST. He said the name OF the father, Of the son and Of the Holy Ghost. OF means belonging to. The name that belongs to the father, the name that belongs to the son, and the Holy Ghost , The singular name is JESUS CHRIST or YASHUA in those days.
@rossdaboss1959 JESUS - The Hebrew yeshua' or yehoshua', meaning "Jehovah saves," is transliterated into English as the name Joshua. In Greek, it became Iesous, thence Iesus in Latin and Jesus in English. Since Jesus was actually Jehovah performing saving work, his name yeshua', "Jehovah saves," coincides precisely.
Matthew (28:19) was with Peter on the day of Pentecost (You know it's true)..what was Matthew doing .. (NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost)..no.. he was speaking in tongues and praising the one true God Jesus The Christ....
Jesus always talked about his Father in heaven and ASKING THE FATHER to send Holy Spirit to earth after he leaves(John 14:16). Jesus may be God, but he is not the Father, and Jesus is not the Holy Spirit. Jesus is a Human being that is God. Jesus said in Matthew 28:19 to baptize in the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.Oneness Pentecostals, why disobey Jesus own words on how to baptize?Acts2:38 is a sorry answer and its being disobedient for the sake of false doctrine
@Judgement220 Show me just one person in the Bible that was baptized in the titles. When u sign your check, do u write son for your name or father? Why did the apostles all agree and baptized in Jesus name? They knew that the single name that belonged to these three titles was Jesus. u see it on a natural level, but on a spiritual level, he is the father. He that hath seen me, hath seen the father. John 14:18, 26, 8-10.
@rossdaboss1959 "In the Name of Jesus" means "by the authority of Jesus" Acts 4:7-12 explains what "in the Name of Jesus" means. Just like "Stop, in the Name of the Law", its not the specific name of the Law, but the authority of the Law. Since people are water baptized by the "In Name of Jesus", under Jesus authority, Jesus told his disciples to baptize in Matthew 28:19. When Jesus say to baptize "in the name" of Father, Son, and Holy SPirit, that means "by the authority" of the 3 persons.
@Judgement220 Not 3 separate persons. 3 manifestations of One God. God knew the only sacrifice to atone for the sins of man was for an innocent to die and pay the penalty. God is Love. Would you require your child you love to die? No you would sacrifice yourself. That is what God did. He created a body for Himself to dwell in so that he could become the sacrifice, Jesus. Not a separate person, His robe of flesh. God is also a spirit and God is holy. The Holy Spirit is God not a separate person.
@rainmakerjgc Are you really convinced by your argument?
"And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt." Matthew 26:39
2 persons
"If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. There is ANOTHER that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true." John 5:31-32
Jesus is NOT the Father, or his witness is not true!
@Judgement220 About Matthew 26:39, have you ever had an internal struggle between the carnal (what your flesh desires) and the spiritual (what you desire though God)? This is what this is describing. If the fleshly part of Jesus never struggled how could God relate to man?
About John 5:31-32 you stopped reading where it is convenient for you. Verse 33 shows that the "Witness" he was referring to was John the Baptist not a 2nd person of the Godhead. Isaiah 9:6 prophesy that Jesus was the Father.
@rainmakerjgc About John 5:31-32 Jesus is talking about the Father as a witness, you need to read further:
"But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me." John 5:36
Did you ignore that verse? Jesus called the Father as his witness, therefore Jesus CANNOT be the Father, if he is, then his witness cannot be true.
@rainmakerjgc About Matthew 26:39, Jesus was praying to someone superior to him, first of all. Also, when you have a internal struggle, Jesus already expressed his will, his will is to be with the Father John 17:24; but the Father's will is for Jesus to die!
@rainmakerjgc About Isaih 9:6, the Son's name shall be called eternal Father, Here what Paul says about that:
"And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." 1 Cor 15:28
Are you going by your own interpretation of Isaiah 9:6 or Apostle Paul, whom Jesus used has his messenger? Clearly Jesus is not the Father, because all Jesus has under his feet will be returned to the Father!
@rainmakerjgc There is only 1 God, or 1 authority, but exist in 3 persons.
"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise."
1 authority = 1 God who exists in 3 persons. This is why in John 1:1 Jesus is called the WORD and NOT the SPEAKER(The Father). This explains Mark 13:32 Matthew 24:36 and Acts 1:7, Jesus doesnt know everything.
@Judgement220 Jesus is referring to the flesh, His physical body in John 5. John 1 does not say that Jesus is the Word. It says that the Word and God are the same, then it says the Word (which is God) was made flesh. This is the preamble so to speak of the Gospel of Jesus as reveled to John. Mark 13:32 again making a distinction between flesh and Spirit. Matt 24:36 is referring to His 2nd coming. Acts 1:7 says knowledge is in the Power-Jesus! Matthew 28:18 Jesus don't know everything? Really?wow
@rainmakerjgc Jesus is the WORD, according to John 1:14. This is why Jesus is called the word: When you speak, your word is only made known of itself. When you think and don't speak, your word is silent. That is why Jesus is called "The word", the Word is God, just like your word is you. Your word knows nothing what you think until you say the word, just like Jesus not knowing when the Father plans to come for his kingdom. Jesus is truly the WORD.
@Judgement220 You just said what I have been telling you and don't even know it. John 1:1 says the Word was God and 1:14 says that Jesus was the Word. You can't See that Jesus Is God? The man Christ Jesus was God in the Flesh. He was always God but did not create the human body for himself until his own timing called for it. The physical man was what he was always referring to as the Son and His Spirit is the Father. Colossians 2:9 You say Jesus didn't know? That is on conflict with John 18:4.
@rainmakerjgc Real nice false presentation of my argument from you. Jesus is God, and I always maintained that in my argument. Amen, Jesus is God in the flesh, the fullness of God dwelled in bodily form.
This is why Jesus is called "THE WORD". When you Talk, YOU and YOUR WORD COEXISTS AT THE SAME TIME. You do not cease to exists when you talk, you still exist when you talk, just like Jesus coming to Earth, the Father is still in Heaven co-existing with the Son. Jesus is truly the WORD.
@Judgement220 You are almost there. You are right but interpret it incorrectly. Your only problem is the word "coexist." If you and your word are one and the same. How do you "COEXIST" with yourself? Your word isn't another person that exists at the same time as you. It is the representation or essence of you. God did not "CLONE" himself. Just as Jonh 1 says, "The Word was God" and "the Word became Flesh." Since one cannot coexist with one's self, Jesus is the bodily representation of God.
@rainmakerjgc Sure its another person because the Word became flesh, Notice John didn't say the Speaker became flesh, but the Word became Flesh. You have a serious issue with your theology, you cannot say that the Speaker of the WORD became Flesh. If you have a WORD, you need a Speaker. The Father is the Speaker and the Word comes from the Speaker just like The SON comes from THE FATHER. This is why Jesus is the Word, the Word is fully dependent on the Speaker, not vice versa, read John 5:19
@Judgement220 You are purposefully skipping over verse John 1:1 it plainly states, "In the beginning was the Word." If the Word was the in the beginning then their was not another before the Word. The next thoughts are, "and the word was with God, and the Word was God." How plain could John make it. He hit from every angle that the Word and God are ONE and the same. Based on that John 1:14 says God Became flesh. You are trying to put Jesus separate and equal beside God. Hosea 13:4 Isaiah 44:6
@rainmakerjgc Another Word? Who is speaking another word, in order to be another word there must be another speaker. I am talking about 1 Speaker and His Word. When you talk, it is only you talking. When you say a word its only you saying your Word.
Now, what beginning is John referring to in John 1:1,
"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." Gen 1:1
God created the universe by the WORD, Let there be light! Gen 1:3
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. "
"Notice Begotten of the Father", this means that the Father is not the Word, but the Speaker. The Word is begotten of the Speaker, just like the Son is begotten of the Father.
@rainmakerjgc The Word is God, Just like your Word is You, the speaker. When you speak, its only you speaking not another person.
Now go to a more distinct level of the speaker and the word..
When you Speak, you are the Speaker and the sounds from your mouth is the Word. The Speaker in himself is not the literal sounds(Word), the sounds from your mouth is not the literal Speaker, but a sound. I'm sure you agree with this assessment.
@rainmakerjgc Therefore, when you have a Speaker and the Word, The Speaker can think and don't have to say everything he is thinking, Therefore the Word in itself does not present everything what the Speaker is thinking. This explains why Jesus doesn't know everything, Mark 13:32, Matthew 24:36, Acts 1:7.
@rainmakerjgc Now another relationship between the Speaker and the Word. The Speaker is not dependent on the Word, but the word is fully dependent on the Speaker. Therefore the Speaker is greater the Word, and the Word cannot be anything of itself except What the Speaker has in Mind. This is why Jesus says that the Father is greater then Him in John 14:28, and this is why Jesus said he can do nothing of himself but only what the Father has in Mind John 5:19
@rossdaboss1959 in Matthew 28:19 tells you the doctrine of the Trinity. 3 persons that has 1 authority, Jesus said "In the Name" meaning 1 authority or 1 God in 3 persons.
[ If had Jesus said baptize "in the names" of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit; That would means 3 persons and 3 authorities which would equate to 3 Gods]--This is not the doctrine of the Trinity.
"In the Name" means "1 authority" which means "1 God".
"Believest thou not that I am IN the Father, and the Father IN me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. "
Nowhere in the Bible Jesus says that "HE IS THE FATHER" not even in John 14:10, Rather Jesus says "He is "IN" the Father" Big difference! You have no scriptural support of Jesus saying that he is the Father himself.
@rossdaboss1959 Since you use John 14:10 to say Jesus is the Father Check out John 14:20 "20At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you"
Water Baptism is not what saves us or justifies anyways john the baptist say I indeed baptize you with water but he "Jesus" shall baptize you with the holy spirit.... One baptism and we are all baptized by one spirit to all those who believe that Jesus is Lord it is with the heart we believe and are justified! I like how CoC's us Acts 2:38 but seem to look over Acts 2:21 all who believe shall be saved.
@cdogg2581 That scripture is talking about the Great Tribulation period. During that time, whosoever shall call upon the Lord in those days shall be saved. And a lot of people will call on him during those days. U won't be able to be baptized during those days. You'll be running for your life. I believe it's for us now too while the church is still here. I called on the Lord after obeying Acts 2:38 and he saved me.
I don't understand how this is a disgrace to the Trinitarian belief? The Trinity is directly and indirectly taught in The Holy Bible. Jesus says baptize in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. Yes they understood that the name of the Father the Son and the Holy Ghost is Jesus. Jesus is God's name for the true salvation. God has 3 eternal modes, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost all existing at the same time forever that is the Trinity.
WE HAVE A (GRACE AND PEACE) FROM ALL 3 MEMBERS OF THE TRINITY IN 2 VERSES.
Revelation 1:4-5 (KJV)
4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come;(GOD THE FATHER) AND from the seven Spirits which are before his throne; (GOD THE HOLY GHOST)
5AND from Jesus Christ, (GOD THE SON) who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth.
Question: Where in the text of Acts 2:38 is water baptism mentioned? Where is water baptism mentioned in Acts 1 or 2? The only place water baptism is mentioned in those chapters is John's baptism. So how can you conclude that Acts 2: 38 is even referring to water baptism, rather than what the context suggest which is the Baptism of the Holy Spirit? Perhaps the Lord needs to open your understanding, my friend.
@doctofer Actually what does not make sense is how you are using to seperate texts Acts 2 and 8 to justify your theology. In Acts 1 & 2, the Baptism that Jesus is promising on Pentecost is the Holy Spirit. Also, Acts 2:38 is not redundant, as the Gift of the Holy Spirit is a result of the Baptism of the Holy Spirit. And lastly, if water baptism is a pre-requisite for Salvation and receiving the Holy Spirit, how do you explain Acts 10:47?
@doctofer Actually sir, John 3:5 is speaking of the natural birth, not water baptism (when a woman is about to give birth, what breaks?), as water is only mentioned once and the flesh and spirit birth are mention several times in John 3. Matthew 28:19 does refer to water baptism, but in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, and Acts 10 proves that one can be saved and Spirit-filled before water baptism.
Philippians 2 and then in the very next book, Colossians 2, we see the power and authority of the name of Jesus, and that the entire Godhead is included in His name.
Just before Jesus was baptized,he said "It becomes us to fulfill all righteousness "and that's good enough for me. In Matthew 21:25,he asked this question,"The baptism of John, was it from heaven, or of men? " and they wouldn't answer him,their reasoning made obvious. The subject being baptism,from then on,he spoke to them in parables about it,up to Matthew 22:12,where it is described as the wedding garment and the one without it was cast out from the wedding. Can it be explained any better ?
Lol read the greek, name in greek is Onoma and means authority. Jews could baptize in the name of Jesus or in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. There is no baptismal formula. Doesn't really matter cause baptism is a priestly cleansing and Israel was intended to be a nation of priests. Baptism has no room in the body of Christ.
So, we should all study hebrew, greek & aramaic in order to more fully understand our english? That's dark age theology. There is a baptismal formula Matt 28:19 & the fulfillment is Acts 2:38. What scripture states "Baptism has no room in the body of Christ"? Onoma was translated "in the name of" not "authority" if u insist that it does then the translators got it wrong & the whole bible is in error & God is in error. Jesus commanded it & Acts 2:38 is the fulfillment of Matt 28:19.
The Bible says that whatsoever we do in word or deed, do it ALL in the name of Jesus....not just baptism. But here's the thing.....the Bible does not command us to verbally the words "in Jesus' name" when we baptize. I can baptize someone without uttering one syllable, and it still would be in Jesus name. How many people verbalize "IN JESUS' NAME" before EVERYTHING they do. Do you? I don't think so. So it doesn't matter if I say "Father, son, and holy Ghost," it's still in Jesus' name.
If that is true then why even bother to argue? It wouldn't matter if there was no difference in verbalizing. God speaks thing into exzistance and uses his WORD so it should be verbalized if we are to operate in his likeness.
Which scripture says "It doesn't matter if we say 'F,S,& HG' it's still in Jesus name."? Scripture clearly states that we're to baptize in Jesus name which is the fulfillment of Matt 28:19. If u say the bible doesn't say for us to verbalize Jesus name in baptism it also doesn't say not to. If ppl want to baptism & say nothing or say 3 Stooges or w/e then that's them but they're still in error. Jesus name baptism is for the remission of sins plain & simple.
The bible says in Ephesians 4:5,6 One Lord, one faith one baptism, One God and father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Jesus is that one Lord and that One God is the Father he is the Father of all including Jesus. they are not the same people they are one because Jesus speaks and does what his father sent him to do he said i do nothing of my self but what i see my father do that i do.
Not the father,son,holyghost- but name of the father...(and of the) son, (and of the) holyghost. The two are not the same. 1 reflects a statement referring to only 1 person the other a separation of persons, Acts 2:38 reflects matt 28 in that it was in the authority given do they now baptize and not a name.
blessings bro
SuperChristianmusici 3 days ago
testify!!!! deuteronomy 6;4 clerly states that god is one !!!!!!!! (and many other verses) :)
SuperChristianmusici 3 days ago
I debate doctrine over a microphone in paltalk: will you debate water baptism with me? My five previous debates including one with an apostolic are on my youtube channel.
MrLimeyBob 2 weeks ago
Amen Amen Amen by brother. I hear u loud n clear. Of means belonging to. The name, singular of the father, Of the son, Of the Holy Ghost. One name for all three titles. God bless u!
rossdaboss1959 3 weeks ago
Jesus is both of God, the Word made flesh, and of Mary, a new creature, one of a kind, the only begotten Son of God. And we have to get baptized into his death in order to be a part of Him and take part in His resurrection. The Father and the Holy Spirit didn't die for us. But people just don't want repent. Turn away from your hard heart and lust of the flesh and eyes, and God will let you see truth. He will fill you with the Spirit of Truth, which will speak out of you in other tongues.
cgmarlowe777 2 months ago
The problem with both oneness apostolics and trinitarians is that they both believe that Jesus is God. Jesus said that God was his father. Too bad we can't have the same revelation as Peter and John. Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. The only begotten of the Father. But Jesus did say that baptism would be preached in His name. The only name given under heaven whereby we must be saved. Repent and get baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. Pretty simple.
cgmarlowe777 2 months ago
You didn't find that in your KJV bible. Is not King James version the only accepted and infallible form in your belief. My guess is that your source likely has "Word Aflame" stamped on the back. The word of God is infallible and not limited to "Word Aflame" publications.
hnixon83 7 months ago
@hnixon83 HAHAHA! your pathetic.
bobbo345 7 months ago
@bobbo345 That's very Christian of you Mr. Bobbo. You know when I first saw your video and read your post I actually thought "I believe this kid is sincere at heart even if he is misguided". Thanks for clearing up my misconception of you:) I disagree with you on Oneness/Trinitarian theology, but I'm not going to resort to calling you "pathetic" or any other names. I seek to bring God Glory period. Psalm 73:8 They scoff, and speak with malice; in their arrogance they threaten oppression. NIV
hnixon83 7 months ago
@hnixon83 what's pathetic is that instead of commenting on what was actually said to you, your best response is to attack a random book publisher and make a misguided insinuation that oneness apostolic's only use the KJV.
that's the best you can come up with? you didn't even answer the point that SiegfriedElric made. It's just sad when that's the best answer you can give to defend you beliefs. Pathetic.
bobbo345 6 months ago
@bobbo345 It is the word of God and the Holy Spirit which abides in me that I use to defend my beliefs. What's to answer regarding Siegfried's beliefs? After all, he didn't sight his source. You even asked him if for it. I'm not attacking any random publisher nor is my KJV only insinuation misguided. I was raised UPC, went to Bible college, etc. I've never met a UPC person that didn't preach KJV only. If you give me a ligitimate question or a reliable sighted source then I'll answer.
hnixon83 6 months ago
@bobbo345 Speaking of which, please explain 1 Cor 15:24-28 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.”[c] Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.
hnixon83 6 months ago
@bobbo345 (Continued) 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. -NIV- Has the last enemy been destroyed yet or are we still awaiting for the blessed hope—the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ? If you'd like to answer this with a biblically based explanation I'd be happy to hear it, "really". Otherwise, I don't have the time nor the energy for sarcasim or bashing.
hnixon83 6 months ago
@bobbo345 - It's "allude," not "elude," and I was alluding to those passages which internally contradict the doctrine of the trinity.
HeroOfChristArchives 8 months ago
@SiegfriedElric could you get me a reference for that? wheres your source?
bobbo345 8 months ago
For those who argue that Matt 28:19 means name not title, I encourage you to look up the Greek word for name "onoma". It may be of surprise to you that it does in fact mean "title" as well reputation, names, named, etc. In the name means BY THE AUTHORITY OF! In Acts 2:38 Peter was relaying the commision given to him "by the authority of Jesus". We are baptized "into" Christ his death and resurrection. Stop making it about the Formula! It's about the baptism "not the formula spoken by MAN!
hnixon83 8 months ago
@hnixon83 I am prepairing a video about the "the authority of god"...please take a peek at my other video "Jesus Name only"
bobbo345 8 months ago
Praise God for truth brother.....being baptized in Jesus name, is such a blessing, the scriptures say, we are to be baptized"in the name of Jesus Christ. Not the titles, why would any one take a chance like that, when even the scripture says, in the name of: the father, the son, and the holy ghost....what is that name???? "Jesus " John 5:43, 44 says he came in his fathers name and ye received him not, John 20:31 " but these are written that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the son of
Olmos4Christ 9 months ago
@flonnlaph1 sorry I meant to respond to @Judgement220.
Mariposaland 9 months ago
@fionnlagh1 - Good question. Better question is how would 3 persons who are supposed to be coequal, coeternal, etc as per the Trinitarian theology, be anything but. You where scratching your head about Jesus saying the Father was Greater. How could He be greater if the the 3 persons are equal? The answer is simple. Read 2 Timothy 3:16 - God was Manifest in the FLESH. The Flesh referred to the Son. He was God and Man. The Man/Son became the curse. Pray that God will open your eyes to see
Mariposaland 9 months ago
@Mariposaland
Also read (Colossians 1:19-20).
MrGhettown 8 months ago 2
The Apostoles where Jewish and knew and understood that there is BUT one word/name which means salvation,which is Yesha=Yeshua=Jesus.Any other word/name does NOT mean Salvation.Col 3:17 states to do ALL deeds and WORDS in Jesus name,only.Acts :12 says NO other Name/word given for salvation.
asternship1 10 months ago
"My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34)
So much for that doctrine....
HeroOfChristArchives 11 months ago
(Jesus is the Name of The Father, Son and Holy Spirit)
ACTS 2:38.8:16,10:48,19:5-6,22:16,ROM6:3,ETC....
7pentecostal7 1 year ago
ACTS 2:38 FOR LIFE!!!!!! ONENESS!!!!!!!!! JESUS AND JESUS ONLY
davidlewis4989 1 year ago
well Jesus should of said baptize in my name then dont you think?? he does not make mistakes bro
bhebrews1214 1 year ago
@bhebrews1214 He did. Read the parallel accounts of Jesus' ascension in the other gospels...put the puzzle together, you will find that he did command them to use his name. moreover the context of this passage makes it clear..."v18 All power is mine", "V20 teach them what...I...have commanded you". The lord clearly puts emphasis on himself,and his name.
bobbo345 8 months ago
Your corrected....Also in the bible it says These three are One.. Father, Son, Holy Ghost---is Jesus.
sandyhembree 1 year ago
i hear you bro but' Jesus said baptize in the father son and holyghost who are we to argue with jesus!?
bhebrews1214 1 year ago
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davidslife1975 1 year ago
@davidslife1975
Baptize in the NAME of Jesus Christ. ---- Does this makes sense if "Name" means what a person is called? Its like saying "David's Name is David" --people would look at you funny if you said that.
"Name" dealing with baptism means "authority" NOT what a person is called.
Judgement220 1 year ago
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davidslife1975 1 year ago
@Judgement220
fionnlagh1 11 months ago
@Judgement220 according to the dictionary, of is a preposition which has many usages. However, in this context, one may only utilize one or two of these usages. #5 used to indicate apposition or identity and #7 used to indicate possession, connection, or association. Similar to one looking at a man with his son perhaps at the park and saying what is the name of that father there. The NAME OF the Father, AND OF the Son, AND OF the Holy Ghost. Acts 4:10-12 one name
fionnlagh1 11 months ago
@fionnlagh1 Here is proof on what I'm talking about of the meaning of Name in the correct context, and its from Jesus as he defines it:
"And I have DECLARED unto them THY NAME, and will DECLARE it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them." John 17:26
Why did Jesus, did not say a name, but gave a directive of Authority in this verse to define the word Name?
Judgement220 11 months ago
@bhebrews1214 He said baptize (in the name of)...and that name is Jesus. Read the book of acts.
MrGhettown 8 months ago
polytheism at its finest lol. Your thoughts on the Godhead are one of the main reasons why Jews don't believe in "christianity" as they are monotheistic. you like to say that you're monotheistic, but in truth are polytheistic. Please describe the difference between my monotheistic and the Jews. Then describe the diff between your monotheistic and the Jews. You're done dude, give it up!!!
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 Instead of answering my questions with intelligent views in scripture, you come at me with dogmatism. The Jews are going to look at you like you are crazy because both the Jews,Muslims, and myself will come to you and say how can the Father curse himself as in Gal 3:13. How can the Father forsake himself as in Matthew 27:46? Are you saying the Father committed suicide on the cross? I would love to hear you answers to those verses, please convince me that the Son IS the Father.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 The jews don't believe in the new testament, so please answer my question first!! Jews are truly monotheistic, mainstream christianity like yourself is polytheistic. Plain and simple, you can't even begin to argue. A jew would laugh in your face if you described 'one' god being in 3 persons!! Other than not knowing that jesus is the messiah, they have the same monotheistic views as i do, not yours. Please show me the trinity in the old testament.this will be interesting!
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 First of All God is in Heaven, that can't change:
"Know therefore this day, and consider it in thine heart, that the LORD he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else" Deut 4:39
The theme in the Old testament is that God Dwells in Heaven and it never changes, the notion that the Most High in ALL his Holiness and power leaves heaven is an unbiblical teaching. I just can't find any scripture to support that notion.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 you didn't answer one of my questions, i don't blame you though, because it's hard to :)
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 The issue with your doctrine is that you don't understand what constitutes a "God". You have the right to call trinitarians polythiestic if we believe that the Father, Son, and holy SPirit all have separate authorties. A "God" must have separate authority from everything else, This is not the doctrine of the Trinity. The Doctrine of the Trinity teaches that the Father is the supreme head of the Godhead; The Son and the Holy Spirit can only have authority in line to the Father.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 i fully understand what constitutes my God in relation to the Godhead. Your idea is the opposite of the Jews and is polytheistic. Even in trinitarian churches, you'd be surprised how many do not hold your ideas. Most hold my view and they look at me like i'm crazy when i describe the Godhead in your terms. Its rarely discussed in most churchs! You are a true trinitarian, i am a true One God believer....literally! As i think you know, i think we'll have to agree to disagree :)
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 You should care what' s in the Bible. The dilimma you have to face is how does the Father have to face his own wrath, Like Jesus did? Jesus is called the Lamb of God by John the Baptist, are you saying that the Father is the Lamb? If you have a sacrifice you need a Slayer and the Father is the slayer, the very Gospel you "believe" in is in peril with your view. God told Abraham to sacrifice his SON not himself!
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 (John 1-19)
MrGhettown 1 year ago
@MrGhettown I'm a trinitarian and would like to know the oneness perspective of the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus. If you are a oneness apostolic, explain why if Jesus is called the Lamb of God showing that the Father is the slayer and Jesus is the Lamb, Did the Father curse himself, did the Father become Unholy, Did the Father commit suicide?
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220
Here's the deal... God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient. However God chose to become as a mortal man and take all of the sins of man upon himself. God did not pass the buck to some other deity or "person" or demigod. God put on a human body (like an avatar) and became a man tempted in all ways like a man and became sin for mankind himself. "I, [even] I, [am] the LORD; and beside me [there is] no saviour." Isaiah 43:11. Yahweh said that He is the only savior.
fionnlagh1 11 months ago
@fionnlagh1 The Main problem with "Oneness" theology is the Death and Curse of Jesus. The Father is the Greatest, Greater then the Son, How can the Most High "Become Sin"? Didn't Jesus say the Father was greater then him in John 14:28? Didn't Jesus became a curse for us on the Cross Gal 3:13? God is all powerful but God has his limits, God cannot become Sin because nobody is above him, its impossible. I agree that Jesus IS God, but explain, how can he be the Father and become a Curse?
Judgement220 11 months ago
@Judgement220 you believe in three. when you go to heaven you will see three thrones. when you pray you pray to three different gods, one at a time. you believe that "1+1+1=1", we understand that "1+1+1=3" which is why we cannot accept god as a trinity.
bobbo345 8 months ago
@bobbo345 Please explain this verse:
"He who overcomes, I will grant to him to sit down with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down WITH My Father on His throne"
Speaking of thrones, This is Jesus speaking from heaven to John. He said He sat down WITH HIS FATHER On HIS THRONE, this makes the Father a separate person from Jesus.
Jesus said My throne and HIS Throne, denoting 2 persons. Jesus and the Father always refer to each other as separate persons.
Judgement220 8 months ago
@lunatik4
"And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn." Zac 12:10
God is in heaven and always is in heaven, saying he will be pierced (a human being), and send His Spirit, while he is still in heaven 3 persons 1 God.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@lunatik4 The Father is Greater then the Son and the Spirit, the Spirit and the Son DO NOT have a separate authority from the Father so of course we can say 3 person 1 God, for Jesus said:
"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. " John 5:19
To have separate Gods you must have separate authorities, this is not the trinity.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 oh, and how does the Holy Ghost fit in this equation? the 3rd person of your godhead always seems to be left out :)
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 Look throughout the Old Testament, how can God say this through prophets like:
"And the Spirit of the LORD will come upon thee, and thou shalt prophesy with them, and shalt be turned into another man." 1 Sam 10:6
How can The Spirit of the Lord say he is in Heaven like Deut 4:39 while a prophet prophesies? The Spirit of The Lord is a person just like Jesus. There is always a co-existence between them.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 reply to early comment..wouldnt u say my friends name is david or my co workers name is david?
davidslife1975 1 year ago
@davidslife1975 I'm Afraid you don't get what I'm Saying. Read what Peter says:
"Baptize in the NAME of JESUS" Look at the phrase "NAME of JESUS", Peter did not say "Name of HIM" or "Name of Christ" which is a pronoun or title,but said the actual name instead of a pronoun or title like "Name of my co-worker" or "Name of My Friend".
If Name means what a person is called are you saying that "Jesus" is a title and not a name.
Judgement220 1 year ago
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"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. "
"Notice Begotten of the Father", this means that the Father is not the Word, but the Speaker. The Word is begotten of the Speaker, just like the Son is begotten of the Father.
Judgement220 1 year ago
Therefore, when you have a Speaker and the Word, The Speaker can think and don't have to say everything he is thinking, Therefore the Word in itself does not present everything what the Speaker is thinking. This explains why Jesus doesn't know everything, Mark 13:32, Matthew 24:36, Acts 1:7.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Jesus was called the "Son of man" according to his manhood, and the "Son of God" according to his Godhood. Kind of like man on the outside, God on the inside, because he is God in the flesh(1 timothy 3:16) If you're saying that there's 3 co-existent, co-eternal, co-substantial persons in the Godhead, that would be incorrect. The Jews know that there is only 1 God, literally. They do not accept mainstream 'christianity' because it is polytheistic, not monotheistic. Big difference!
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 You have to answer about the death of Jesus Christ on the Cross, Who killed Jesus?
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Sin killed the flesh. No one killed Jesus, he laid down his life for us. Come on, a 2 yr old knows that!
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 Sin does not kill anybody, Sin is what you do, its not a person. The Father Kills everybody. You got theological issues here:
"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Matthew 27:46
Did Jesus forsaken himself?
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 The bible says "when sin is finished, it bringeth forth death" when Jesus was on the cross, he said "it is finished" and he gave up the ghost. You really need to check your theological theories. Your'e forgetting that as a man, he felt forsaken, not his deity. Jesus is God, he's not subordinate to the Father. if you believe that, you really have some theological issues!! A small god praying to a bigger god. Ummmm, well......NO
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 As I said, How can the Father commit suicide? How can the Father curse himself? How can the father get tired and has to eat? Jesus is God, but he is subordinate to the Father because he said so:
"Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I." John 14:28
I'm waiting, how can the Son be the Father Himself?
Judgement220 1 year ago
@lunatik4 You brought up James 1:15
"But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.Do not err, my beloved brethren" James 1:14-16
Read in context, James was not referring to the Cross, but the full maturation of Sin which is Death, which happens today, we all sin and will die physically. Christ died so we don't die a "second death"
Judgement220 1 year ago
@lunatik4 This is why its makes no sense to believe that Jesus is the Father:
"Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree: " Gal 3:13
"44The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? "Matt 22:44-45
Jesus quoted Psalms 110:1, saying the LORD said to MY LORD. Co-existence told in prophesy.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Isaiah 9:6 calls him the Father. Do you say that Jesus is equal to the Father? Please think about it before you reply :)
lunatik4 1 year ago
@lunatik4 Did you teach yourself that Isaiah 9:6 says that Jesus is the Father? Well Apostle Paul taught me this:
"For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. " 1 Cor 15:27-28
Why Jesus say that he is not the Father?
Judgement220 1 year ago
U are right! NOBODY WAS BAPTIZED IN THE TITLES, FATHER< SON< HOLY GHOST. He said the name OF the father, Of the son and Of the Holy Ghost. OF means belonging to. The name that belongs to the father, the name that belongs to the son, and the Holy Ghost , The singular name is JESUS CHRIST or YASHUA in those days.
rossdaboss1959 1 year ago
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@rossdaboss1959 JESUS - The Hebrew yeshua' or yehoshua', meaning "Jehovah saves," is transliterated into English as the name Joshua. In Greek, it became Iesous, thence Iesus in Latin and Jesus in English. Since Jesus was actually Jehovah performing saving work, his name yeshua', "Jehovah saves," coincides precisely.
7pentecostal7 1 year ago
Matthew (28:19) was with Peter on the day of Pentecost (You know it's true)..what was Matthew doing .. (NAME of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost)..no.. he was speaking in tongues and praising the one true God Jesus The Christ....
7pentecostal7 1 year ago
OBEY ACTS 2:38!!!
revelashaun68 1 year ago
@revelashaun68 Amen...
7pentecostal7 1 year ago
Jesus always talked about his Father in heaven and ASKING THE FATHER to send Holy Spirit to earth after he leaves(John 14:16). Jesus may be God, but he is not the Father, and Jesus is not the Holy Spirit. Jesus is a Human being that is God. Jesus said in Matthew 28:19 to baptize in the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.Oneness Pentecostals, why disobey Jesus own words on how to baptize?Acts2:38 is a sorry answer and its being disobedient for the sake of false doctrine
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Show me just one person in the Bible that was baptized in the titles. When u sign your check, do u write son for your name or father? Why did the apostles all agree and baptized in Jesus name? They knew that the single name that belonged to these three titles was Jesus. u see it on a natural level, but on a spiritual level, he is the father. He that hath seen me, hath seen the father. John 14:18, 26, 8-10.
rossdaboss1959 1 year ago
@rossdaboss1959 "In the Name of Jesus" means "by the authority of Jesus" Acts 4:7-12 explains what "in the Name of Jesus" means. Just like "Stop, in the Name of the Law", its not the specific name of the Law, but the authority of the Law. Since people are water baptized by the "In Name of Jesus", under Jesus authority, Jesus told his disciples to baptize in Matthew 28:19. When Jesus say to baptize "in the name" of Father, Son, and Holy SPirit, that means "by the authority" of the 3 persons.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Not 3 separate persons. 3 manifestations of One God. God knew the only sacrifice to atone for the sins of man was for an innocent to die and pay the penalty. God is Love. Would you require your child you love to die? No you would sacrifice yourself. That is what God did. He created a body for Himself to dwell in so that he could become the sacrifice, Jesus. Not a separate person, His robe of flesh. God is also a spirit and God is holy. The Holy Spirit is God not a separate person.
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Are you really convinced by your argument?
"And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt." Matthew 26:39
2 persons
"If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. There is ANOTHER that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true." John 5:31-32
Jesus is NOT the Father, or his witness is not true!
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 About Matthew 26:39, have you ever had an internal struggle between the carnal (what your flesh desires) and the spiritual (what you desire though God)? This is what this is describing. If the fleshly part of Jesus never struggled how could God relate to man?
About John 5:31-32 you stopped reading where it is convenient for you. Verse 33 shows that the "Witness" he was referring to was John the Baptist not a 2nd person of the Godhead. Isaiah 9:6 prophesy that Jesus was the Father.
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc About John 5:31-32 Jesus is talking about the Father as a witness, you need to read further:
"But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me." John 5:36
Did you ignore that verse? Jesus called the Father as his witness, therefore Jesus CANNOT be the Father, if he is, then his witness cannot be true.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc About Matthew 26:39, Jesus was praying to someone superior to him, first of all. Also, when you have a internal struggle, Jesus already expressed his will, his will is to be with the Father John 17:24; but the Father's will is for Jesus to die!
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc About Isaih 9:6, the Son's name shall be called eternal Father, Here what Paul says about that:
"And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all." 1 Cor 15:28
Are you going by your own interpretation of Isaiah 9:6 or Apostle Paul, whom Jesus used has his messenger? Clearly Jesus is not the Father, because all Jesus has under his feet will be returned to the Father!
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc There is only 1 God, or 1 authority, but exist in 3 persons.
"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise."
1 authority = 1 God who exists in 3 persons. This is why in John 1:1 Jesus is called the WORD and NOT the SPEAKER(The Father). This explains Mark 13:32 Matthew 24:36 and Acts 1:7, Jesus doesnt know everything.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 Jesus is referring to the flesh, His physical body in John 5. John 1 does not say that Jesus is the Word. It says that the Word and God are the same, then it says the Word (which is God) was made flesh. This is the preamble so to speak of the Gospel of Jesus as reveled to John. Mark 13:32 again making a distinction between flesh and Spirit. Matt 24:36 is referring to His 2nd coming. Acts 1:7 says knowledge is in the Power-Jesus! Matthew 28:18 Jesus don't know everything? Really?wow
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Jesus is the WORD, according to John 1:14. This is why Jesus is called the word: When you speak, your word is only made known of itself. When you think and don't speak, your word is silent. That is why Jesus is called "The word", the Word is God, just like your word is you. Your word knows nothing what you think until you say the word, just like Jesus not knowing when the Father plans to come for his kingdom. Jesus is truly the WORD.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 You just said what I have been telling you and don't even know it. John 1:1 says the Word was God and 1:14 says that Jesus was the Word. You can't See that Jesus Is God? The man Christ Jesus was God in the Flesh. He was always God but did not create the human body for himself until his own timing called for it. The physical man was what he was always referring to as the Son and His Spirit is the Father. Colossians 2:9 You say Jesus didn't know? That is on conflict with John 18:4.
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Real nice false presentation of my argument from you. Jesus is God, and I always maintained that in my argument. Amen, Jesus is God in the flesh, the fullness of God dwelled in bodily form.
This is why Jesus is called "THE WORD". When you Talk, YOU and YOUR WORD COEXISTS AT THE SAME TIME. You do not cease to exists when you talk, you still exist when you talk, just like Jesus coming to Earth, the Father is still in Heaven co-existing with the Son. Jesus is truly the WORD.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 You are almost there. You are right but interpret it incorrectly. Your only problem is the word "coexist." If you and your word are one and the same. How do you "COEXIST" with yourself? Your word isn't another person that exists at the same time as you. It is the representation or essence of you. God did not "CLONE" himself. Just as Jonh 1 says, "The Word was God" and "the Word became Flesh." Since one cannot coexist with one's self, Jesus is the bodily representation of God.
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Sure its another person because the Word became flesh, Notice John didn't say the Speaker became flesh, but the Word became Flesh. You have a serious issue with your theology, you cannot say that the Speaker of the WORD became Flesh. If you have a WORD, you need a Speaker. The Father is the Speaker and the Word comes from the Speaker just like The SON comes from THE FATHER. This is why Jesus is the Word, the Word is fully dependent on the Speaker, not vice versa, read John 5:19
Judgement220 1 year ago
@Judgement220 You are purposefully skipping over verse John 1:1 it plainly states, "In the beginning was the Word." If the Word was the in the beginning then their was not another before the Word. The next thoughts are, "and the word was with God, and the Word was God." How plain could John make it. He hit from every angle that the Word and God are ONE and the same. Based on that John 1:14 says God Became flesh. You are trying to put Jesus separate and equal beside God. Hosea 13:4 Isaiah 44:6
rainmakerjgc 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Another Word? Who is speaking another word, in order to be another word there must be another speaker. I am talking about 1 Speaker and His Word. When you talk, it is only you talking. When you say a word its only you saying your Word.
Now, what beginning is John referring to in John 1:1,
"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." Gen 1:1
God created the universe by the WORD, Let there be light! Gen 1:3
now read John 1:4, Jesus is the light of Men!
Judgement220 1 year ago
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@rainmakerjgc John 1:14
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. "
"Notice Begotten of the Father", this means that the Father is not the Word, but the Speaker. The Word is begotten of the Speaker, just like the Son is begotten of the Father.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc The Word is God, Just like your Word is You, the speaker. When you speak, its only you speaking not another person.
Now go to a more distinct level of the speaker and the word..
When you Speak, you are the Speaker and the sounds from your mouth is the Word. The Speaker in himself is not the literal sounds(Word), the sounds from your mouth is not the literal Speaker, but a sound. I'm sure you agree with this assessment.
Judgement220 1 year ago
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@rainmakerjgc Therefore, when you have a Speaker and the Word, The Speaker can think and don't have to say everything he is thinking, Therefore the Word in itself does not present everything what the Speaker is thinking. This explains why Jesus doesn't know everything, Mark 13:32, Matthew 24:36, Acts 1:7.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rainmakerjgc Now another relationship between the Speaker and the Word. The Speaker is not dependent on the Word, but the word is fully dependent on the Speaker. Therefore the Speaker is greater the Word, and the Word cannot be anything of itself except What the Speaker has in Mind. This is why Jesus says that the Father is greater then Him in John 14:28, and this is why Jesus said he can do nothing of himself but only what the Father has in Mind John 5:19
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rossdaboss1959 in Matthew 28:19 tells you the doctrine of the Trinity. 3 persons that has 1 authority, Jesus said "In the Name" meaning 1 authority or 1 God in 3 persons.
[ If had Jesus said baptize "in the names" of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit; That would means 3 persons and 3 authorities which would equate to 3 Gods]--This is not the doctrine of the Trinity.
"In the Name" means "1 authority" which means "1 God".
Judgement220 1 year ago
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@rossdaboss1959 Read John 14:10
"Believest thou not that I am IN the Father, and the Father IN me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. "
Nowhere in the Bible Jesus says that "HE IS THE FATHER" not even in John 14:10, Rather Jesus says "He is "IN" the Father" Big difference! You have no scriptural support of Jesus saying that he is the Father himself.
Judgement220 1 year ago
@rossdaboss1959 Since you use John 14:10 to say Jesus is the Father Check out John 14:20 "20At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you"
Does this mean that you are Jesus Himself?
Judgement220 1 year ago
Well put, you stayed in the word.
upperoom120 1 year ago
Water Baptism is not what saves us or justifies anyways john the baptist say I indeed baptize you with water but he "Jesus" shall baptize you with the holy spirit.... One baptism and we are all baptized by one spirit to all those who believe that Jesus is Lord it is with the heart we believe and are justified! I like how CoC's us Acts 2:38 but seem to look over Acts 2:21 all who believe shall be saved.
brakcarr 1 year ago
@brakcarr that quote from Acts 2:21 is irrelevent..of course we have to believe..if you dont understand..read John 3:5..its self explanitory
cdogg2581 1 year ago
@cdogg2581 That scripture is talking about the Great Tribulation period. During that time, whosoever shall call upon the Lord in those days shall be saved. And a lot of people will call on him during those days. U won't be able to be baptized during those days. You'll be running for your life. I believe it's for us now too while the church is still here. I called on the Lord after obeying Acts 2:38 and he saved me.
rossdaboss1959 1 year ago
I don't understand how this is a disgrace to the Trinitarian belief? The Trinity is directly and indirectly taught in The Holy Bible. Jesus says baptize in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. Yes they understood that the name of the Father the Son and the Holy Ghost is Jesus. Jesus is God's name for the true salvation. God has 3 eternal modes, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost all existing at the same time forever that is the Trinity.
LifeLibertyLove 1 year ago
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WE HAVE A (GRACE AND PEACE) FROM ALL 3 MEMBERS OF THE TRINITY IN 2 VERSES.
Revelation 1:4-5 (KJV)
4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come;(GOD THE FATHER) AND from the seven Spirits which are before his throne; (GOD THE HOLY GHOST)
5AND from Jesus Christ, (GOD THE SON) who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth.
HARLANGENEPARROTT 1 year ago
Question: Where in the text of Acts 2:38 is water baptism mentioned? Where is water baptism mentioned in Acts 1 or 2? The only place water baptism is mentioned in those chapters is John's baptism. So how can you conclude that Acts 2: 38 is even referring to water baptism, rather than what the context suggest which is the Baptism of the Holy Spirit? Perhaps the Lord needs to open your understanding, my friend.
gmandofgod 1 year ago
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doctofer 1 year ago
@doctofer Actually what does not make sense is how you are using to seperate texts Acts 2 and 8 to justify your theology. In Acts 1 & 2, the Baptism that Jesus is promising on Pentecost is the Holy Spirit. Also, Acts 2:38 is not redundant, as the Gift of the Holy Spirit is a result of the Baptism of the Holy Spirit. And lastly, if water baptism is a pre-requisite for Salvation and receiving the Holy Spirit, how do you explain Acts 10:47?
gmandofgod 1 year ago
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doctofer 1 year ago
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doctofer 1 year ago
@doctofer Actually sir, John 3:5 is speaking of the natural birth, not water baptism (when a woman is about to give birth, what breaks?), as water is only mentioned once and the flesh and spirit birth are mention several times in John 3. Matthew 28:19 does refer to water baptism, but in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, and Acts 10 proves that one can be saved and Spirit-filled before water baptism.
gmandofgod 1 year ago
@gmandofgod are you serious? God provided water in the desert for a baptism
erichathy222 1 year ago
@erichathy222, Yes I am serious! Is there any place in the text that God provided water, or are you reading it into the text, which is poor exegesis?
gmandofgod 1 year ago
God bless, that was good
stefanielyn103 1 year ago
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HARLANGENEPARROTT 1 year ago
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HARLANGENEPARROTT 1 year ago
Philippians 2 and then in the very next book, Colossians 2, we see the power and authority of the name of Jesus, and that the entire Godhead is included in His name.
SeekingHim100 1 year ago
Good video keep it up bro!
seedofgreatness 1 year ago
please join my group antisatan and feel free to leave topics and videos on bible prophecy and doctrines
erichathy222 2 years ago
i need christian freinds please thank you
erichathy222 2 years ago
Just before Jesus was baptized,he said "It becomes us to fulfill all righteousness "and that's good enough for me. In Matthew 21:25,he asked this question,"The baptism of John, was it from heaven, or of men? " and they wouldn't answer him,their reasoning made obvious. The subject being baptism,from then on,he spoke to them in parables about it,up to Matthew 22:12,where it is described as the wedding garment and the one without it was cast out from the wedding. Can it be explained any better ?
hotlic 2 years ago
Lol read the greek, name in greek is Onoma and means authority. Jews could baptize in the name of Jesus or in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. There is no baptismal formula. Doesn't really matter cause baptism is a priestly cleansing and Israel was intended to be a nation of priests. Baptism has no room in the body of Christ.
AndyTCurry 2 years ago
So, we should all study hebrew, greek & aramaic in order to more fully understand our english? That's dark age theology. There is a baptismal formula Matt 28:19 & the fulfillment is Acts 2:38. What scripture states "Baptism has no room in the body of Christ"? Onoma was translated "in the name of" not "authority" if u insist that it does then the translators got it wrong & the whole bible is in error & God is in error. Jesus commanded it & Acts 2:38 is the fulfillment of Matt 28:19.
RinnEgade 2 years ago
@RinnEgade
Amen and well said!
aliendeception 2 years ago
The Bible says that whatsoever we do in word or deed, do it ALL in the name of Jesus....not just baptism. But here's the thing.....the Bible does not command us to verbally the words "in Jesus' name" when we baptize. I can baptize someone without uttering one syllable, and it still would be in Jesus name. How many people verbalize "IN JESUS' NAME" before EVERYTHING they do. Do you? I don't think so. So it doesn't matter if I say "Father, son, and holy Ghost," it's still in Jesus' name.
boybillboy 2 years ago
If that is true then why even bother to argue? It wouldn't matter if there was no difference in verbalizing. God speaks thing into exzistance and uses his WORD so it should be verbalized if we are to operate in his likeness.
bhowie777 2 years ago
Which scripture says "It doesn't matter if we say 'F,S,& HG' it's still in Jesus name."? Scripture clearly states that we're to baptize in Jesus name which is the fulfillment of Matt 28:19. If u say the bible doesn't say for us to verbalize Jesus name in baptism it also doesn't say not to. If ppl want to baptism & say nothing or say 3 Stooges or w/e then that's them but they're still in error. Jesus name baptism is for the remission of sins plain & simple.
RinnEgade 2 years ago 9
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doctofer 1 year ago
amen brother
shunnyacts238 2 years ago
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The bible says in Ephesians 4:5,6 One Lord, one faith one baptism, One God and father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Jesus is that one Lord and that One God is the Father he is the Father of all including Jesus. they are not the same people they are one because Jesus speaks and does what his father sent him to do he said i do nothing of my self but what i see my father do that i do.
dougbell85 3 years ago
notice it said name not names it is singular Jesus was speaking of himself i come in my father name what name did he come
edelrie122781 3 years ago 4
TRUE
Madameo8 2 years ago
Not the father,son,holyghost- but name of the father...(and of the) son, (and of the) holyghost. The two are not the same. 1 reflects a statement referring to only 1 person the other a separation of persons, Acts 2:38 reflects matt 28 in that it was in the authority given do they now baptize and not a name.
liberatedvialove 3 years ago