Added: 3 years ago
From: burny1
Views: 10,689
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  • At 2:45 I think you switched around the fraction (1-y) to (y-1) without taking the negative to the other side

  • @ARosstube You made me worry there ha. It's correct, we have the - before the fraction 1/A(x)B(x)=c/A(x)+d/B(x) ==>1/A(x)B(x)=c/A(x)-d/-B(x) so top and bottom of that fraction is negativised :)

  • y' = (y^2 + 16)/(t^2 - 25)

  • @atx51288 Is this a correction or a question? Thanks

  • how did you integrate 1/(y(y-1))? sorry, I took calc a long time ago. thanks.

  • @jungleman68 First notice that 1/(y(y-1))=A/y+B/(y-1) then multiply all by (y(y-1)) to get values for A and B by making them equal zero eg B(y) let y=0 see what A equals. This is known as partial fractions. Then if the top of a fraction [a/b] is the differential of the bottom then the integral is log(b). I hope that has made sense

  • how do you know to choose sin x as the p(x), why couldnt you do 1/sin x and y(1-y)

  • We are trying to only integrate the x parts wrt x and putting 1/sinx would mean integrating it wrt y which will just make it very complicated in the end. So we are just moving the dx up on the otherside by multiplying and rearranging to have all the x terms on the side with dx and all y terms on side with dy.

  • ok thanks

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