the silly thing is, if i was doing this is my exam, I know i would do something like, instead of 5!/3! to get probability of 2 I would say 5C2 and get it all wrong :(
I need help in differing the situations in which you'd use either of those- which for what? xxxx
You are one kind of miracle God has made, Keep doing this selfless teaching... Now I know for sure God made me intelligent my lecturer was dumb he did not know how to teach.....
@someones1 its not his fault , probability theory always sucks . if i hear the phrase" flip a coin" one more time ,the probability of me having a nervous breakdown =1
I'm stuck on this & was wondering if someone could help. Given binomial distribution p 0.25. Suppose we construct 6 trials. Construct aa table for probability of success outcomes and use at least 6 decimal places. Can anyone help? And what is the probabilty the # of successes is greater than two but less or equal to four?
Thank you for putting up such nice work on the net for our convenience. We spoken and explained. Please do not mind some nasty comments by some uncivilised net users. The majority will appreciate your work. Take care!
I'm not a math student so please be gentle! Why does the probability of a successful outcome decrease as n becomes bigger? For example p(X=5) is greater with n=10 than p(X=10) with n=20. This for me is counter-intuitive since I would expect a coin flip (for example) to approach 50:50 as n increases. I'm probably confusing two concepts. Hope this makes sense.
Think of a rolled die. You have six possible outcomes each with the same chance of occurring: ie p(1,2..6)=1/6 now if 6 is a 'successful' outcome each roll gives a 1/6 chance of success 'p' and a 5/6 chance of failure 'q'. The odds of success for the first throw are the same as for subsequent throws too. Probability of success with the second throw is: P(2)=qp. With third throw is: P(3)=qqp etc. in numbers P(2)=5/6*1/6 P(3)=5/6*5/6*1/6 etc failure for n-1 throws and success on the nth throw.
I hope you can see from the example that the more throws that are required to gain the success (the six) the less is the probability of that ocurring. You have a 1/6 chance of immediate success (one throw only) and a 5/36 chance for a failure with the first throw and a success with the second throw and a 25/216 chance of success with the third throw. Can you see how the probability is getting lower the more throws that are taken? You are more likely to get a six on the first roll!!! Strange.
Wow this is strange. My question stems from a claim a retail financial market trader made. His proposition relied on two wins occurring back to back.
He won 50% of the time If the win/loss ratio is 50:50, how can you keep that ratio, after a string of losses for example, without having back-to-back wins? I'm baffled.
The catch is that p(X=10) with n=20 means the probability that in 20 coin flips, *exactly * ten are heads/tails (the important part here is "exactly"). So the more times you throw, the less probable is a singe given result (exactly one half are heads). I think you are confusing this probability with the expected value.
Thank you so much! Please keep up the good work! )))
And Hail you tube for providing space for such good videos. (Because think of it, only 15 years ago most pupils and students did not have access to such help. Now if you didn't understand something in class you can go to the web and fill in the blanks you have.
This video sucks. His math is wrong in several places.
DanielJosephBattista 2 days ago
Fair enough! :)
cbburtraw 1 month ago in playlist Statistics
I like a lot of head..
mattg30380003 2 months ago
Thank you!
Melsi1979 3 months ago
Comment removed
nfbsk 3 months ago
OMG = John Mayer teaches the binomial distribution!!!
shiftclick46 4 months ago
Comment removed
Nina4183 4 months ago
You are my HERO! <3
IdiosyncraticChild 6 months ago
This guy will one day win the Nobel peace prize - for changing millions of fates for the better!
shantanudas 7 months ago 9
@shantanudas if obama could get one Khan should get 5 of them
TwistedLemniscate 4 months ago
are you using a tablet or just really good at using mouse? (great vid btw) :D
lozball666 8 months ago
the silly thing is, if i was doing this is my exam, I know i would do something like, instead of 5!/3! to get probability of 2 I would say 5C2 and get it all wrong :(
I need help in differing the situations in which you'd use either of those- which for what? xxxx
TheLetterZed 8 months ago
This is really helpful, cheers :) buut oh seeing the 3! even though you've corrected it makes me cringe !!!
xxxxxxx
TheLetterZed 8 months ago
GOT IT!!
jeiem75 8 months ago
It is a great tutorial Thank you. However I can't understanf fron where teh 1/32 come from. I was expecting 1/25
...any suggestion??
jeiem75 8 months ago
Thanks so muchh! great review for the ap stats exam tomorrow(:
ladykaykayy 8 months ago in playlist Statistics Khanacademy
thank GOD for people who can actually explain math well....
iLuvSmartCars 10 months ago 2
You are one kind of miracle God has made, Keep doing this selfless teaching... Now I know for sure God made me intelligent my lecturer was dumb he did not know how to teach.....
anchanda 11 months ago
"If you're in the mood you can draw it!" Love this guy
jay343jay2000 11 months ago
i pity people's current stats teacher
polaroidfair 1 year ago
Thanks a lot for the whole series. Very very useful!
ojasmehta01 1 year ago
tihis sucks man, keep it cool
someones1 1 year ago
@someones1 its not his fault , probability theory always sucks . if i hear the phrase" flip a coin" one more time ,the probability of me having a nervous breakdown =1
Norah9O2 1 year ago 4
im gonna fail :(
InnocentxR 1 year ago 5
THANKS !!
rockfort28 1 year ago
Cheers,
bestwarezforums 1 year ago
they have to clone u and put u in evry class room!
seekluv 1 year ago 5
wats the probability of me leaving a comment.
Farzher 1 year ago 10
100%
Spydiggity 1 year ago 4
Thanks for the videos. It helped me understand some of these subjects much better. I will definitely watch your other videos as well.
charming661 1 year ago
why did my comment get so much negative points?
what did i write?
frodonet 1 year ago
Comment removed
kramtark 1 year ago
I wish I understood this as easily as some of my classmates :(
But this helped a LOT. Thank you :) Very helpful!
katedanielle2406 2 years ago
I'm stuck on this & was wondering if someone could help. Given binomial distribution p 0.25. Suppose we construct 6 trials. Construct aa table for probability of success outcomes and use at least 6 decimal places. Can anyone help? And what is the probabilty the # of successes is greater than two but less or equal to four?
natedogg2k9 2 years ago
amazing.........................
love the way you give the examples and explain
the whole series is great ..........
why don't we have teachers like you in colleges
daninderkaur 2 years ago 5
Thank you for putting up such nice work on the net for our convenience. We spoken and explained. Please do not mind some nasty comments by some uncivilised net users. The majority will appreciate your work. Take care!
mujimax007 2 years ago 4
dude, its funny, because a few weeks before i made a test about this
p(x=2)=(5nCr2)*((1/2)^2)*(1/2)^3=10/32
dreanter 2 years ago
so damn inuitive, maybe the most straight forward math since grade school....
johngoforth77 2 years ago
I'm not a math student so please be gentle! Why does the probability of a successful outcome decrease as n becomes bigger? For example p(X=5) is greater with n=10 than p(X=10) with n=20. This for me is counter-intuitive since I would expect a coin flip (for example) to approach 50:50 as n increases. I'm probably confusing two concepts. Hope this makes sense.
m01009190 2 years ago
Think of a rolled die. You have six possible outcomes each with the same chance of occurring: ie p(1,2..6)=1/6 now if 6 is a 'successful' outcome each roll gives a 1/6 chance of success 'p' and a 5/6 chance of failure 'q'. The odds of success for the first throw are the same as for subsequent throws too. Probability of success with the second throw is: P(2)=qp. With third throw is: P(3)=qqp etc. in numbers P(2)=5/6*1/6 P(3)=5/6*5/6*1/6 etc failure for n-1 throws and success on the nth throw.
skewedfoot 2 years ago
I hope you can see from the example that the more throws that are required to gain the success (the six) the less is the probability of that ocurring. You have a 1/6 chance of immediate success (one throw only) and a 5/36 chance for a failure with the first throw and a success with the second throw and a 25/216 chance of success with the third throw. Can you see how the probability is getting lower the more throws that are taken? You are more likely to get a six on the first roll!!! Strange.
skewedfoot 2 years ago
Wow this is strange. My question stems from a claim a retail financial market trader made. His proposition relied on two wins occurring back to back.
He won 50% of the time If the win/loss ratio is 50:50, how can you keep that ratio, after a string of losses for example, without having back-to-back wins? I'm baffled.
m01009190 2 years ago
The catch is that p(X=10) with n=20 means the probability that in 20 coin flips, *exactly * ten are heads/tails (the important part here is "exactly"). So the more times you throw, the less probable is a singe given result (exactly one half are heads). I think you are confusing this probability with the expected value.
andresgoens 2 years ago
maybe this makes sense..
say ur experimenting with the coinflip example... and u flip the coin 5 times...and get 2 heads.
so thats 2/5 = .4
if you flip the coin more times you will get closer to .5 success..
does that make sense?....
DrJobinsp 2 years ago
You are better than my statistics teacher.
RestauranteChines 2 years ago 56
@RestauranteChines haha nice :)
StridingCloud 7 months ago
Has anybody told you that you sound like Samuel Jackson? lol
Great vid BTW :D
rawhemi 2 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
what is the probability of getting some motherfuckin snakes on a motherfuckin plane?
LOL
frodonet 2 years ago
not bad for a statistics nerd...haahaahaaahah
rocketer90 1 year ago
that is a great shortcut
nafslee 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
1. Cover your mouth with your hand
1. Hold your hand to your mouth.
2. Make a wish into it.
3.Close your hand (make it into a fist)
4. Hold you hand(the fist) to your heart for 5 seconds.
5.Send this to 3 more videos.
6. Tommorow will be the best day of your life
prnc561990 2 years ago
Thank you so much! Please keep up the good work! )))
And Hail you tube for providing space for such good videos. (Because think of it, only 15 years ago most pupils and students did not have access to such help. Now if you didn't understand something in class you can go to the web and fill in the blanks you have.
dAvrilthebear 2 years ago 30
@dAvrilthebear yes sir. we have an additional resource that students of the past do not have
bkstyle82 3 months ago
Your videos are saving me in my Comms II class! Will you do any joint probability density function problems or stochastic processes?
dewhite888 2 years ago
I've never seen probability applied outside of health care, which is the field I worked in before the accident that put in a coma occurred.
I recently returned to my former profession. IV Therapy is immersed in Math.
I'm glad I took this course before I started working again. It's why I understand IV Therapy.
vickiormindyb 2 years ago
Good video, I learned a lot from it. Please note: (5x4x3)/3! = 10 and 5!/(3!x3!) = 10/3.
Barnekkid 2 years ago 12
I noticed that also...
I think the second fraction should be 5!/(3!2!).
If we have a bag of N things and we want to choose K things out of it we should get
N!/[K!(N-K)!]...right?
Shazaaming 2 years ago
Thanks for pointing that out. I made an annotation.
khanacademy 2 years ago 16
Thank you.... so....
much for these very clear and helpful videos
You are a blessing
:)...
Annie10k 2 years ago
Your videos are awesome! I was wondering if you are going to complete the Statistics playlist by May, because that's when AP exams are.
porkman385 2 years ago