Added: 2 years ago
From: ExamSolutions
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  • well their is the old tale of the British being bad at math

  • Thank you so much, you are a legend, very easy to follow... thanks again

    

  • you used very odd examples. Thanks non the less, I appreciate your effort :)

  • thank you very much your a god send, and i think every teacher like you out there should be rewarded immensely, teachers are truly the most important factor in education.

  • thank you for sharing these videos, excellent examples!

  • @fazekaslaszlo Pleasure

  • Doesn't it go without saying that the "success" has to be the same event in every trial...? im referring to the sixes and heads example.

    Also, if the trials are independent (and the successes are the same event every time) doesn't this imply that p is constant? because is the first and second trials are independent for example, then P(X_2=1/ X_1)= P(X_2 = 1) = p and also P(X_1=1/X_2) = P(X_1=1) = p, so P(X_1 =1) = P(X_2 = 1)=p i.e. the probability of success is constant...

    I'm confused!

  • @TOinfinityNOW Yes, the chance of getting heads on a coin will always be 1/2 and the chance of getting a 6 on a dice will always be 1/6, but he's basically saying that at each stage, will his chance of succeeding (getting a 6 or a heads) always be the same? and the question is no because he is 50% likely to get heads in one trial but the chance of him succeeding when he rolls for a six drops to 1/6. Your comment was 9 months ago though lol, so this comment is pretty pointless

  • 6:29

    Isn't the probability of success the prob. of getting a 6 AND geting a heads = 1/2 +1/6 = constant?

  • @mauroprovatos Not at all. AND you multiply not add. You add when two events are mutually exclusive the (OR rule)

  • @ExamSolutions yeah yeah my bad.

    So why isn't the probability of success of the problem considered constant = 1/2 * 1/6 = 1/12?

  • Your videos are references for students.

    i will direct all frind i know to your vidoes.

    Thumb's UP!

  • @hongabonga12345 Thanks for all your comments on the videos.

  • great, however is tennis not independent? why does the outcome of the second match depend on that of the first? it has no effect, as they are different matches, and two different performances. you can lose your first match 6-0 6-0 and then win your next 6-0 6-0

  • @04rkeigh Not at all. The way you play from one game or match to the next is affected by form, how you played previously, confidence etc. Do you not think that when England play in the world cup they will be unaffected by previous matches, injuries to the team, tiredness etc. I think they will. The same for the tennis example.

  • @ExamSolutions I respectively disagree. Confidence may play a factor in your performance, but not necessarily the outcome of the match. For example, your opponent could play an equally poor match, perhaps double faulting or hitting the ball out of play regularly. Also, confidence does not have a direct effect on your next performance, otherwise players would either constantly lose matches or constantly win matches. Rafael Nadal would have been confident playing Robin Soderling at Rolland Garros

  • @04rkeigh 2009, a time where he had never lost to the player, nor lost a match at Rolland Garros in 4 years. Yet he lost.

  • another great video

  • One Day When I become an Astro-Physicist I will repay You :)

  • Cool - I look forward to that day - Hope you become the best Astro Physicist in the world

  • You are the best teacher man... keep it up.. This videos are very helpful for students!

  • Thanks man

  • 20 min youtube > 4h class... thx :)

  • Pleased to hear this was of some help.

  • I was listening and paying attention, but did anyone else notice that the rule included BNP?

  • @Jamslap92 LoL Nick Griffin Couldn't do Tree diagrams let alone this

  • OMG. You talked for over 10 minutes about statistics and I actually absorbed all of it. You really are phenomonal... keep it up :D

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