The Translation of Easter

[177Jeremiah7]

Great video!

[samuelamos1]

A goof? As has been demonstrated, the word easter was synonymous w/ passover and would have been easily understood by the Bible reader of the day. Look in any Strongs' and you will see that the translators used a variety of words to translate any single GK word. Saying Easter was a goof is a judgement of style, not accuracy.This discussion is about accuracy, and the KJB is correct as has been demonstrated.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 No, "Easter" in the KJV is NOT correct. It has NOT been "demonstrated" correct. EASTER DID NOT EXIST when Luke wrote Acts, and the translation should reflect LUKE'S thoughts, not those of the translator. "Easter is NOT accurate, no matter how many excuses one invents trying to defend it. And neither is the KJVO myth in general. There's not one quark of the slightest implication for the KJVO myth, even in the KJV itself.

[samuelamos1]

The Geneva Bible contains the word easter no less than 4 times in it's notes and each time is reffering to the feast of passover or the "easter lamb", not just a single days' observance. 1560 ed.? No, 1599 ed. Bishops' contains easter in two verses not only in 1568, but even in its post 1611 printings. Dictionaries of that day and later confirm it's interchangeability w/ passover. It is doubtful that a term in constant use for a millenia would loose it's meaning in a single generation.

[samuelamos1]

One more citation that deserves mention. The Geneva Bible, that was in wide circulation before the AV, contained the word easter in the translators notes. The note is in reference to Ex.23:15. This verse mentions the feast of unleavened bread. The translators state concerning this feast,"That is Easter, in remembrance that the Angel passed over and spared the Israelites...". The Geneva Bible was in common use even after the KJB so it's definition of Easter cannot be considered dated in 1611.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1  No, the Geneva Bible was completed in 1560, followed by the "Bishop's Bible" of 1568. Again, the interchangeability of Easter and passover had become obsolete by the time the KJV was made.

[samuelamos1]

The word Easter is a correct translation of pascha. In 1611 Easter was synonymous with passover/pascha. To prove this I cite Tyndales NT which uses the word easter throughout, Luthers' trans,Florios' Italian/English Dictionary1611ed. states that the Italian Pasqa,passover, and english Easter are all synonymous, this is echoed by Webster in His 1828 & later editions.The Easter reading in Acts is carried over from the 1602ed. of the Bishops' Bible Which was in use until the AV replaced it.

[samuelamos1]

@samuelamos1 So you can see that Easter was used interchangeably w/ passover all the way up to the year 1611 and beyond. what has changed is our modern understanding of the word. Citing an instance where Easter is used differently only means that it has more than one definition as most words do. In those cases context determines the meaning. The AV uses Easter once; the Bishops' uses it twice.It seems that it was carried into the AV unchanged from the Bishops' which the KJB was a revision of.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 The AV men simply goofed. They blindly copied the Geneva or Bishop's Bible in this case, without careful proofreading. You might as well chuck all the "Ishtar = Easter" stuff, as it simply isn't true. A detailed study of history will reveal that fact. You must remember that the AV translators were men like us, subject to human error. They were, as we are, imperfect men handling God's perfect word.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 Well, a common cold useta be called "catarrh" within the lifetimes of our oldest citizens, but how many younger people know what catarrh means, or use that word? The interchangeability of Easter and passover was obsolete by the time the KJV was made.

[robycop3]

Luke wrote the word 'pascha', which meant nothing but 'passover' to him. He could NOT have been writing about Easter; it DID NOT EXIST when Luke wrote Acts.

[tgambill]

@robycop3 you Satanist just don't quit do you??????

[robycop3]

@tgambill Why R U writing to yourself, Wing Nut?

[tgambill]

@robycop3 I write to myself to get intelligent answers it seems. Easter, as we know it, comes from the ancient pagan festival of Astarte. Also known as Ishtar (pronounced "Easter"). a celebration of the earth "regenerating" itself after the winter season. The festival involved a celebration of reproduction. On the 14th of April the lamb was killed. This is the passover. No event following the 14th is ever referred to as the passover.

[tgambill]

@tgambill part II On the morning of the 15th begins the days of unleavened bread, also known as the feast of unleavened bread. Acts 12:3, 4: Herod, in Acts 12, had arrested Peter during the days of unleavened bread, after the passover. The days of unleavened bread would end on the 21st of April. Shortly after that would come Herod's celebration of pagan Easter. Herod had not killed Peter during the days of unleavened bread simply because he wanted to wait until Easter.

[tgambill]

@tgambill Part III Since it is plain that both the Jews (Matthew 26:17-47) and the Romans (Matthew 14:6-11) would kill during a religious celebration, Herod's opinion seemed that he was not going to let the Jews "have all the fun." He would wait until his own pagan festival and see to it that Peter died in the excitement. .

[tgambill]

@tgambill Part IV and final . it was God's providence which had the Spirit-filled translators of our Bible (King James) to CORRECTLY translate "pascha" as "Easter". It most certainly did not refer to the Jewish passover. In fact, to change it to "passover" would confuse the reader and make the truth of the situation unclear.

[robycop3]

@tgambill It was God's providence which had the translators of newer versions correct the KJV's goof of "Easter" in Acts 12:4. We see that the KJV translators clearly knew Easter from passover; they recognized Easter and Christmas as the 2 holiest days of the year. They even put an "Easter-Finder" in the AV 1611. In LUKE'S day, pascha meant passover and nothing else. It was a transliteration of the Hebrew "p'sach", the word GOD used for PASSOVER when He gave the passover commands to Moses.

[tgambill]

@robycop3 You are dead dead wrong. The change to the Newer versions were originated by Westcott and Hort, to Evil laden Masons and actual Warlocks. This is a matter of HISTORY you cannot refute except if you were on drugs. NO mistranslations what so ever. Easter and Christmas are both pagan brought to the Roman Catholic Church, by Constantine who was a sun worshiper and pagan himself. Declared himself to be Summus Pontifex. First Pope. You can't fight truth only fabricate.

[robycop3]

@tgambill Yes, Easter was introduced by Constantine's missionaries, who got it from some Germanic tribes, and worked the story of Jesus' resurrection into it. Easter did NOT exist when Luke wrote the letter that was to become the Book of Acts, so the use of "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is a goof. (BTW, the KJV translators believed that Easter and Christmas were the two holiest days of the year, as is seen in their commentary within the AV 1611,)

[tgambill]

@robycop3 Robby, the commentary is not God inspired. You are wrong once again. The King James is the inerrant word of God and there is nothing you can make up or fictionalize that will change that.  Judgment is coming soon for those that distort the word. You best repent.

[tgambill]

Respond to this video...  Jesuits even smell bad.....

[samuelamos1]

@tgambill Amen.



[robycop3]

@tgambill I'll prove U wrong by your own KJV right here... Ezekiel 45:21In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have THE PASSOVER, A FEAST OF SEVEN DAYS; unleavened bread shall be eaten.

John 18:28Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might EAT THE PASSOVER. Now, the paschal lamb had already been eaten...(continued)

[robycop3]

@robycop3 ...(Continued) so the reference in John 18:28 MUST be to the special meals of unleavened bread eaten all week long. Passover IS indeed a week long by GOD'S OWN DECLARATION. Therefore, Herod busted Peter during PASSOVER. Easter did not then exist, and even if it had then existed, no orthodox JEW woulda observed it.

[tgambill]

@robycop3 You didn't read what I wrote. You are making ifs, coulds, maybe's......and this proves nothing but movement of words.

[robycop3]

@tgambill Yes, it IS! Read Ezekiel 45:21 in your own Bible.

[tgambill]

Its answers the question in order and just call me rebellious. lol

[samuelamos1]

@robycop3 If this word were translated "passover" as you suggest, the Bible would then have a clear contradiction. The translation as it appears in modern versions is chronologically impossible. There is no reason to believe that the word pascha meant anything different in greek than it does today; a synonym for Easter.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 Sam, it HAD to have meant "passover" in Luke's day, as EASTER DID NOT THEN EXIST! And if it HAD existed, no religious JEW woulda observed it, as they did not recognize JESUS as Messiah. Remember, pascha is rendered 'passover' in the KJV the other 28 times it appears in the NT Greek. Fact is, the KJV GOOFED by using "Easter" in Acts 12:4.

[samuelamos1]

@robycop3 Easter is the celebration of the Spring equinox.It is named after the queen of heaven.This holiday has been celebrated since the Tower of Babel.The passage never says that the Jews celebrated it. Judah was occupied by Rome at this time; many romans would have kept this holiday. Pascha can mean Passover or easter in greek depending on the context.

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 it doesn't matter what it NOW means; in LUKE'S time it meant only PASSOVER; Easter did not then exist. "Pascha" is a transliteration of the Hebrew "p'sach", the word GOD used for passover.

[samuelamos1]

@robycop3 The context clearly indicates that this reference is not to the Jewish feast, as it occurs during the days of unleavened bread which always follow passover. As for the KJB translators, I believe that after translating pascha as passover on every other occasion,they must have had very strong reasoning for this one deviation. Psalm12:6&7

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 The WHOLE observance is called "passover"!

Ezekiel 45:21In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have**** the passover, a feast of seven days****; unleavened bread shall be eaten.  This is GOD'S VERY WORDS to Zeke! He couldn't be any plainer!

[samuelamos1]

@robycop3 I'm sorry, you're right about Ezekiel45:21. But I contend that this is still the correct trans. I looked up Easter in an old websters' and an older definition for easter is synonymous w/ passover. The word passover did not exist B4 Tyndale coined it. Tyndales' NT uses Easter in place of passover in most places. See Luke22:1 in his 1534 NT. The meaning of easter has changed, but in 1611 it was a correct trans of pascha. BTW I posted more info on your channel. Hope you check it out :+)

[robycop3]

@samuelamos1 No, the interchangeability of Easter, pascha, and passover had ended before 1611. This is evidenced in other literature of the day, and in the AV1611 itself, where its translators placed an "Easter-Finder" and called Easter one of the 2 holiest days of the year, along with Christmas. Simple fact is, the AV men GOOFED by placing "Easter" in Acts 12:4. Now, even if your supposition was correct, it's just another sign that it's time to move on to MORE-MODERN Bible translations.

[curvalecce]

Did Herod have an orgiastic pagan ceremony in Jerusalem? Given Jewish sensitivity, how likely is that? If 'Easter' comes from the pagan 'Ishtar', why is the Greek for Easter 'pascha πάσχα', and the Italian word 'pasqua', and the Spanish word 'Pascua'? Shouldn't these languages, being nearer to Israel, be closer to Ishtar?

And why is Dr Gipp ignoring the influence of the Teutonic goddess 'Eastre'?

The Hebrew for 'passover is 'פסח' 'pesach'. Sounds like 'pascha' to me...

[NickSayers]

Easter was in all reformation bibles except Geneva of 1560. Easter means Ressurrection in German. Luther used Oster. Check my vids for more.

[hier0phant]

Please reupload this!

[rosswell59]

God's word is indeed good. Note the following verses:

Lev. 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.

Luke 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.

[rosswell59]

My comment posted a year ago was intended to show that the word "pascha" which was translated Easter in Acts in the KJV should be passover just as Luke the author of Acts states in 22:1 of his own gospel. Dr. Gipp tries to get around this but he really doesn't. It's sad to see this lie being propagated after being thoroughly refuted.

[tallswede68]

This video is completely messed up. Can you re-upload it?

[FSTDS]

Hello. May anyone explain to me briefly what Dr. Sam Gipp means when he said something about Luke 22: 1? Or, can anyone explain to me how Luke 22: 1 does not say the feast of unleavened bread is also the passover?

[ivanyoulube]

it has been said that u will find easter as a satanic celebration....the things we didnt know :(

[peacechild61]

Jesus died for my sins..He was the Passover lamb of Jewish Prophecy in th Old Testament..that He died on the Cross is a FACT!, if they want to call that time Easter,ok, I call it the Fulfillment of Passover,or Passover Lamb Feast...its all about Jesus!! its not about religion..the KJV is the first English Translation from the Latin and Greek,and Hebrew,there fore I think other versions are less accurate,the omit many words from original manuscripts that take away from Christs Divinity.

[Jerry4America]

Amazing video- proves conclusively that God had his hand on the KJV and that Easter is the correct translation.

[megazero1982]

What do Easter got to do with Jesus dying for are sins over and passover.What about my soul geting saved by Jesus.That passover will not save my soul from hell.

[takealongline]

King James Only doctrine is not in the Bible. It does not come from God. It comes from Benjamin Wilkinson. It is the doctrine of man. Samuel Gipp teaches false doctrine. He is a false teacher.

[DRbiohazard]

Why??? Because the King James Bible does'nt

water-down the Deity of Jesus Christ or His

Blood-Atonement?

[tallswede68]

...or equate Jesus Christ with Satan?

[excatholics]

Nice!