@Formslip because cos(pi) = (-1). And, raising it to n-1 is simillar to having the pi multiplied by n-1.
Try drawing the simple cosine graph from 0 to 5pi, and youll notice that it is 1 at even values of pi, and -1 at odd values of pi. Hence the substitution.
This is 3 semesters from where I'm at now!
I just started cal
andr00123 6 months ago
int x at 3 is 3x. 3x/6 when x is 3 is 3(3)/6 which is 9/6 which is 3/2, not 3/4.
could you please explain what a and b is?
LANN98 8 months ago
@LANN98, int of x is 1/2*x^2, the const outside the int is 1/6, therefore 1/6 * 1/2*x^2 = x^2/12, sub in 3 for x and the result is 9 /12 or 3/4 :)
nateroll4life 3 months ago
u speaking too fast Mr lee..
sai1120 1 year ago 3
hey are u malaysian? you sound like one
Muckincontemplation 1 year ago
how did you change cos(npi-1) to [(-1)^n-1]?
thats the only part that lost me
Formslip 1 year ago
@Formslip cos(n*pi)=(-1)^n is an identity, look at integer mutliples of pi on the graph of cos(x)
jh00ny 1 year ago
@Formslip because cos(pi) = (-1). And, raising it to n-1 is simillar to having the pi multiplied by n-1.
Try drawing the simple cosine graph from 0 to 5pi, and youll notice that it is 1 at even values of pi, and -1 at odd values of pi. Hence the substitution.
Harryhicy 1 year ago
@Formslip I had the same confusion and went over my notes from class...he made a mistake with the brackets he means cos(npi) -1 not cos(npi -1)
zibray 4 months ago in playlist Fourier Analysis
Awesome!!!!!
hifhif123 1 year ago
Probly the best teacher of Fourier seris on the internet!! Thnx
BOOPACHECO 1 year ago 2
Thank you so much! This video was very helpful!
shrusteddy 1 year ago
thank you!!! =)
Popcornchicken101 1 year ago
was having trouble doing finding a way to do the integration but the lesson helped alot...thanks!
pooz0r 2 years ago
oo shit..shud be an= 1/3 integral from -3 to 3 of f(x) TIMES cos(npix/3) dx...not an= 1/(2x3) integral from -3 to 3 of f(x) TIMES cos(npix/3) dx
calltheworld555 2 years ago
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rowanrobinson 1 year ago
i was thinking about the same thing, my textbook has 2/T aswell,
outlawkelb 2 years ago
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DoubleDutchBust 2 years ago
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DoubleDutchBust 2 years ago
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DoubleDutchBust 2 years ago
how come cos(nPi - 1) = [(-1)^n - 1]
=S
lithe333 2 years ago
I'm pretty sure he made a mistake but he corrected it when he wrote the whole Fourier series.
It's supposed to be (cos(nPi) - 1). he just didn't put a few brackets in there is my guess
regginscanjump 2 years ago
Hahahaha What do u see? the answers? hahaha Nice DonyLee :D
Lu1stron 3 years ago
well done. however, the equation we are trying to fourierize is not a function there. But everything else is correct.
surfax100 3 years ago
YOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO THATS a Cool way of integration by parts. I mean, its the same as always, but it looks nicer, LOLZ
andyvalencia 3 years ago
slight typo in final expression of An
great vid
4txx 3 years ago
Excellent. I've never seen Fourier Series before your lessons sequel. Very interesting, keep up the good work!
illusion422 3 years ago