Added: 3 years ago
From: jehan60188
Views: 3,172
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  • You just showed that the theorem hold for any finite n in the Positive integers, induction does not prove it works for infinity. Your induction only proves the taylor polynomial theorem. Unless you did something I didn't see.

  • I'm sorry but I'm a lil bit curious ... what the HELL happend at 1:28 ?

  • @PeetPb i don't know what you mean. I used a fade to demonstrate that a new term was written.

  • @jehan60188 I know ... I just can't work out what u have done there ... you calculated the integral f'(t)dt so it is eq. to f'(t)t-int t f''(t) dt (all that evaluated between a and x) and than ? how could you factor out f'(a) at that first term ? and how did you "pull" that x into the integral ?

  • @PeetPb use integration by parts

    u = t and dv = f''

  • @PeetPb use integration by parts

    u = t and dv = f''

  • @jehan60188 I still somehow cannot figure it out .. I made another iteration of integraton by parts on that integral(tf''(t)dt) as u=t and v=f'(t) du=dt dv=f''(t)dt so the integral is equal to tf'(t)-integral f'(t)dt ... and now the integral vanishes and leaves me a useless equation f(x)-f(a)=xf'(x)-af'(a) ... I'm starting to be despaired, where have I made a mistake ?

  • thanks for putting this up - nice clear explanation. Hadn't looked at the proof for 25 years - great reminder...

  • Here's some, go die.

  • This video is awful

  • @Flashylightsmeow thank you for the feedback, I am always happy to accept constructive criticism

  • @jehan60188 the problem is, you are writing something else and speaking something else.

  • Thank's for explication, now i undestood the taylor teorem :)

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