But one must still experience the fact of making the claim of an "a priori analytic". Therefore claims to be synthetic a priori is impossible as they prohibit the experience of the making of the claim.
I have a question (but it's just a little off topic). On Hume's view, since aposteriori implies a judgment by experience, and since analytic statements imply a necessity for experience, could we say that the statement "All analytic statements are aposteriori" is a tautological, analytic statement? If we may say that, is there something funny about this?
Best channel I've found on yt for some time. Some of the points you make I feel like are almost hitting, but not quite. Hopefully if I watch more things will start to click.
dependent on experience and independent of experience. and a posteriori as opposed to a posterori. and yes checking your text probably could have waited, however as an introduction it is helpful and informative so thank you , having it drawn out really helped x
Well, the question should be: How can a proposition be non-tautological (synthetic, true by definition) and independent of experience (a priory). Kant doesn't say that there are propositions are both dependent and independent of experience. That would be illogical! Otherwise, your explanation is great!
Really? Checking your text messages while teachng?!?!? I lol'd after years of profs telling me to turn off my cell phone. Good vids though they helped a lot thanks
But one must still experience the fact of making the claim of an "a priori analytic". Therefore claims to be synthetic a priori is impossible as they prohibit the experience of the making of the claim.
POWLIHERE22 1 month ago
I thought 'Fork' was spelt Foek for ages because of the way you wrote your capital R! Love these videos.
Guilfordust 2 months ago
dude why cant u be my philosophy teacher?... mine sucks
burso772 3 months ago
I have a question (but it's just a little off topic). On Hume's view, since aposteriori implies a judgment by experience, and since analytic statements imply a necessity for experience, could we say that the statement "All analytic statements are aposteriori" is a tautological, analytic statement? If we may say that, is there something funny about this?
freetaught 3 months ago
@freetaught Hume wouldn't agree with the claim that all analytic statements are aposteriori. For him, analytic claims are apriori.
drjasonjcampbell 3 months ago
So what is the statement "your eraser is working now" or "your eraser seems to be working now". Or "the eraser is working better now"?
apekillssnake 8 months ago
Thank YOUUUUUU!!!!!!! I have no idea whats going on in class. Final is tomorrow! Thank you!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Now I do!!
tomkins05 8 months ago
cell phone. lol
luke2thab 8 months ago
What about sophistry and illusion?
bazzazcl 9 months ago
Best channel I've found on yt for some time. Some of the points you make I feel like are almost hitting, but not quite. Hopefully if I watch more things will start to click.
BigBagsForRent 9 months ago
your saying a posterior wrong
NsNBobbysto 10 months ago
dependent on experience and independent of experience. and a posteriori as opposed to a posterori. and yes checking your text probably could have waited, however as an introduction it is helpful and informative so thank you , having it drawn out really helped x
kyasha123 1 year ago
Comment removed
kyasha123 1 year ago
thanks so much!!
DETROITSSAVIOR 1 year ago
Well, the question should be: How can a proposition be non-tautological (synthetic, true by definition) and independent of experience (a priory). Kant doesn't say that there are propositions are both dependent and independent of experience. That would be illogical! Otherwise, your explanation is great!
bhigr 1 year ago
Really? Checking your text messages while teachng?!?!? I lol'd after years of profs telling me to turn off my cell phone. Good vids though they helped a lot thanks
ianlippert 1 year ago