Added: 1 year ago
From: khanacademy
Views: 22,743
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  • Ok I am a little confused. Would it work if i wrote. (1/60)*(1/59)*(1/58)*(1/57) Since u have a 1 in 60 chance to get the first number then 1 in 59 chance for second and so on would this work? but i dont get the same answer

  • Khan you just saved my life! :)

  • So basicly if the order was important you would use permutations?

  • @Dragonnoodle1 Yes.

  • I have a test of this in an hour and I didnt really study o.O I am going to die!

  • Excellent video.

  • These 4 vids learned me everything about permutation and combinations that I tried to learn with my calculus book for hours.

  • @Ekman900509 YYYESS!!

  • Watched the four video set and loved it, thanks Khan.

  • So each lottery is an independent event with a one in 487,635 chance in winning. is this correct? So if the same 4 numbers are played week after week , the chance of winning with those same numbers is not increased because each event is independent.

  • His answer is wrong. Its [24/ 487635] because the order doesn't matter thus those winning numbers occur in 4!=24 ways.

  • @24ballin23 He did do that, because order doesn't matter, he divided it by 4! and he got 487635 for the combinations. And for the possibity he got 1/487635. its not wrong.

  • @24ballin23 They occur in 24 different ways; however, there are 11,703,240 permutations - not 487,635.

    24/11703240 = 1/487635

    Tacos are delicious.

  • how would you solve one an outrageously high number such as. 300P289?

  • Thank you Sal, plz more videos of discrete maths :)

  • the old calc was way cooler :))

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