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  • Thanks for explain in that way!!!! I can understand now :)

  • can't believe i found ur vids now!! i could have aced my quant finance class if i had found it a few months earlier. love ur vids!!

  • Thanks! helped clear that up

  • at 3:07, the Ri*Ri+1 cancel. Can we say that this is because the expected value of it is 0? I think you showed that in the brownian motion video. Thanks for answering my questions!

  • meybe i can help u with that a litle bit.

    u can talk with me on skype-

    look for alonsela972 from israel

    :-)

  • hi

    u have an answer for u:

    if z is a variable distrebuting normaly with 0 mean and std 1then:

    x=z*dt^0.5 E[x] =E[z*dt^0.5]=E[z]*E[dt^0.5]=0

    and VAR[z]=VAR[z*dt^0.5]=E[(z*dt^0­.5)^2]-E^2[z*dt^0.5]=E[z^2*dt]­-0=E[z^2]*[dt]=1*dt=dt

    therefor x is a wiener process whith E[x]=0 and V[x]=dt

    i hope it helps u

    alon

  • @alonsela972 Thanks, that actually makes some sense.  Although I still *almost surely* don't understand all the technical requirements of Wiener processes. That was almost a joke. ;)

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