at 3:07, the Ri*Ri+1 cancel. Can we say that this is because the expected value of it is 0? I think you showed that in the brownian motion video. Thanks for answering my questions!
@alonsela972 Thanks, that actually makes some sense. Although I still *almost surely* don't understand all the technical requirements of Wiener processes. That was almost a joke. ;)
Thanks for explain in that way!!!! I can understand now :)
CHIOLEMO 2 months ago in playlist Quantitative Finance
can't believe i found ur vids now!! i could have aced my quant finance class if i had found it a few months earlier. love ur vids!!
formchoi2190 2 months ago
Thanks! helped clear that up
markus713 3 months ago
at 3:07, the Ri*Ri+1 cancel. Can we say that this is because the expected value of it is 0? I think you showed that in the brownian motion video. Thanks for answering my questions!
wadtk 10 months ago
meybe i can help u with that a litle bit.
u can talk with me on skype-
look for alonsela972 from israel
:-)
alonsela972 1 year ago
hi
u have an answer for u:
if z is a variable distrebuting normaly with 0 mean and std 1then:
x=z*dt^0.5 E[x] =E[z*dt^0.5]=E[z]*E[dt^0.5]=0
and VAR[z]=VAR[z*dt^0.5]=E[(z*dt^0.5)^2]-E^2[z*dt^0.5]=E[z^2*dt]-0=E[z^2]*[dt]=1*dt=dt
therefor x is a wiener process whith E[x]=0 and V[x]=dt
i hope it helps u
alon
alonsela972 1 year ago
@alonsela972 Thanks, that actually makes some sense. Although I still *almost surely* don't understand all the technical requirements of Wiener processes. That was almost a joke. ;)
NathanWhitehead 1 year ago