The English never conquered india, unlike the muslims who killed and raped the country. The English made alliances with the local rulers until they were the rulers. This took a few generation. In the end, the English handed India back peacefully
I love this kind of stuff. I was born in Germany and live in the US, and a Farsi speaker from Iran and I were comparing notes on our languages, knowing that both were related to Sanskrit. We tend to forget that not only are our languages related, but that we all are, all the way back to the ancestors of the San Bushmen of Africa. The fact that "human" derives from "aum" is pretty interesting, too.
Indian had the first universities , in the world.. where people from all over the world ( yeah, greeks/romans ) came to study mathematics/philosophy / astronomy , and a whole of other things
Sanskrit = Samkak Krutam, ie. Well made, or perfected, as opposed to Prakritam, or that which comes from Prakruti or Nature aka Natural Language. Crete does not figure into the picture. Learn the language before you post something like that.
Your out of touch with reality.. zigsaucer. No Ancient Greek is not the oldest language when it was spoken an WHOLE range of languages existed.. Ancient Greek descend from Proto Greek and it self descend from Proto Indo European even if some think that a stage between Proto indo-European and Proto Greek might have existed.
Ugh your out of touch with reality really. Where is the so called evidence of this indo-greek kingdom? We have none. You live in a nationalist dream world wake up and smell the cofeé you see it is very typical for super nationalists to not being able to accept this. I can beat your arguments trough pre history, linguistic and archaeology also in Alexander's time people spoke many different languages.. do you think people spoke Greek in Sweden?
And also you have to say how colonialism and PIE come to together...
I mean Euro racists do not often accept that indo-European cultures came from Asia.. Do you think British nationalist like to know that fact? Polynesian languages? You got to be kidding me.. lol. You try trough your bullshit deny over 200 years of language study. For an example the indo-europans who setteld in the northen europes P become F and that is why we in English say father and pather and the same thing in all Germanic
Also the indo-European language has nothing to do with Euro centrism infact they like you do not accept it. The indo-European speaking lived in Asia and most believe around the black sea . Yes Europe is a Greek word loaned by most of the other languages.. just as English husband come from Old Norse húsbóndi. And zero come from non-Indo-European Arabic that is a Semite language from the bigger Afro-Asiatic languages. Sorry but your arguments is a joke and based on extreme nationalism.
there is no archeological evidence of the "IndoEuropeans" its just a manifestation of the brittish colonialism , they must have been invisible "the invisible indoeuropeans".
Around the black sea sounds they must heve benn the khazarians ;) .
And abot Semite languages here it is
HEBREW IS GREEK by Joseph Yahuda
OxfordBecket Publications ,TelAviv University
HELLENICUM PACIFICUM: Greek linguistic elements in the Polynesian languages - Nors S. Josephson Heidelberg University
No Hebrew and the Semite languages have not so much in common with Greek except some loanwords that exists. Also what you say is out of touch with reality.. Buddhism? Ugh.. have you ever wonder why indo-European culture share many pagan gods? How come that indo-European languages share many features? Also all mankind descend from Africa, Greek is a very young language and Buddhism a young religion in the history of mankind. The thing is no matter what I say you live in a nationalist fantasy land
Also there has never been an Greek dialect here in Sweden... Swedish is from the Germanic branch.. the North germanic to be exact of the indo-european tree.
This comment has received too many negative votesshow
What are you talking about this was quite illuminating. My only regret is that it wasn't much longer-but considering how vast Hindu/Vedic literature is, they could only present a brief overview. How could one ignore also the provacative implications that Greek and Latin culture derived much of their knowledge from Hindus (Indians).
they come from a common source which *no longer exists*. The similarities are due to this, not due to one daughter branch (India) being the origin of all the others.
This comment has received too many negative votesshow
Actually there is no "common source" This theory was devised due to the inability of ethnocentric 19th century europeans to accept that Indic culture could be the source of European, despite clear evidence and no evidence to the contrary.
Our modern understanding of historical linguistics is not based on Victorian racism, it's a science that has proven the facts behind the Indo-European linguistic family time and time again. And those facts are hardly eurocentrist - depending on the theory, the IE family originated either in the Middle East or Central Asia. *Not* Europe. The only ethnocentrists in the modern debate on this topic are the Indian extremists who refuse to recognize the facts.
The English never conquered india, unlike the muslims who killed and raped the country. The English made alliances with the local rulers until they were the rulers. This took a few generation. In the end, the English handed India back peacefully
godno1god 8 months ago
I love this kind of stuff. I was born in Germany and live in the US, and a Farsi speaker from Iran and I were comparing notes on our languages, knowing that both were related to Sanskrit. We tend to forget that not only are our languages related, but that we all are, all the way back to the ancestors of the San Bushmen of Africa. The fact that "human" derives from "aum" is pretty interesting, too.
terransage 1 year ago
... and which caste are you nrittam ..lol
rhythmstic 1 year ago
@rhythmstic Depends upon his profession and knowledge he has acquired.
bapina2k 6 days ago
The queen of england, should be held for war crimes
The bitch
nrittam 2 years ago
anyways, the english are spent...dickless now..
The English were no more than common robbers/thieves ..
Tomorrow, who knows what will happen
Maybe, one day, india wll regain all the wealth those robbers took, over a few centuries
And they common englishman, lives a life of luxury, while indians swim around in filth
nrittam 2 years ago
india was like america 2000 years back.. look at india's population.. its totally multi racial/ multi lingual etc
The british, they were worse than the nazi'z..
I wonder why the British are not held for war crimes
nrittam 2 years ago
There is no such thing as Indo-european
Indian had the first universities , in the world.. where people from all over the world ( yeah, greeks/romans ) came to study mathematics/philosophy / astronomy , and a whole of other things
nrittam 2 years ago
This has been flagged as spam show
Sanskrit-Lithuanian language
bhuda=bunda,buda;bhutis=būtis;Vešpats=Viešpatis;Devas=Dievas;viras=vyras;mata=motė;
sunus=sūnus;duhita=duktė;švašuras=šešuras;dantas=dantis;
ansa=ansa,ąsa;ašru=ašara;padas=padas;javas=javas;madhus=medus;
sanas=senas;asmi=asti;esmi=esti; and so on
discouniverse 3 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
Sanskrit = San Krit = San Kritika = Like Cretan
Wake up
the term "Indoeuropean" was manifested for the judtification of Colonialism by the British
Later the Germans manifested the term "Indogerman"
ITS NEITHER The Most Scientific, Ancient, Spiritual
White(wasp,germ,fronsua)esotericless Man look elsewhere
for enlightment
zigsauer 4 years ago
Sanskrit = Samkak Krutam, ie. Well made, or perfected, as opposed to Prakritam, or that which comes from Prakruti or Nature aka Natural Language. Crete does not figure into the picture. Learn the language before you post something like that.
chomperhater 4 years ago 2
*Samyak Krutam. Apologies for the error
chomperhater 4 years ago
*Samyak Krutam* Apologies for the erroneous Vigraha Vaakya.
chomperhater 4 years ago
you are sure ignorant
ragman2008 3 years ago
Your out of touch with reality.. zigsaucer. No Ancient Greek is not the oldest language when it was spoken an WHOLE range of languages existed.. Ancient Greek descend from Proto Greek and it self descend from Proto Indo European even if some think that a stage between Proto indo-European and Proto Greek might have existed.
Eopyk 3 years ago
There is not such thing "indo-european" or "indoeuropeans".
The only thing that existed was the IndoGreeks
and the Indogreek-kingdom where buddhism was created and became state religion like. Similar to christianity in Europe.
The "Indoeuropean-Theory" as I stated before is an Imperialistic Deception for the judtification of Colonialism by the British.
Europe is a Greek name so it cant have existed before its Creator B-) .
What was Europe at the time of Alexander The Great!
zigsauer 3 years ago
Ugh your out of touch with reality really. Where is the so called evidence of this indo-greek kingdom? We have none. You live in a nationalist dream world wake up and smell the cofeé you see it is very typical for super nationalists to not being able to accept this. I can beat your arguments trough pre history, linguistic and archaeology also in Alexander's time people spoke many different languages.. do you think people spoke Greek in Sweden?
Eopyk 3 years ago
You an see all about the Indo-Greeks and
Greco-Buddhism in WikiPedia .
A Greek dialect swedish is B-) .
zigsauer 3 years ago
And also you have to say how colonialism and PIE come to together...
I mean Euro racists do not often accept that indo-European cultures came from Asia.. Do you think British nationalist like to know that fact? Polynesian languages? You got to be kidding me.. lol. You try trough your bullshit deny over 200 years of language study. For an example the indo-europans who setteld in the northen europes P become F and that is why we in English say father and pather and the same thing in all Germanic
Eopyk 3 years ago
Also the indo-European language has nothing to do with Euro centrism infact they like you do not accept it. The indo-European speaking lived in Asia and most believe around the black sea . Yes Europe is a Greek word loaned by most of the other languages.. just as English husband come from Old Norse húsbóndi. And zero come from non-Indo-European Arabic that is a Semite language from the bigger Afro-Asiatic languages. Sorry but your arguments is a joke and based on extreme nationalism.
Eopyk 3 years ago
there is no archeological evidence of the "IndoEuropeans" its just a manifestation of the brittish colonialism , they must have been invisible "the invisible indoeuropeans".
Around the black sea sounds they must heve benn the khazarians ;) .
And abot Semite languages here it is
HEBREW IS GREEK by Joseph Yahuda
OxfordBecket Publications ,TelAviv University
HELLENICUM PACIFICUM: Greek linguistic elements in the Polynesian languages - Nors S. Josephson Heidelberg University
zigsauer 3 years ago
No Hebrew and the Semite languages have not so much in common with Greek except some loanwords that exists. Also what you say is out of touch with reality.. Buddhism? Ugh.. have you ever wonder why indo-European culture share many pagan gods? How come that indo-European languages share many features? Also all mankind descend from Africa, Greek is a very young language and Buddhism a young religion in the history of mankind. The thing is no matter what I say you live in a nationalist fantasy land
Eopyk 3 years ago
Also there has never been an Greek dialect here in Sweden... Swedish is from the Germanic branch.. the North germanic to be exact of the indo-european tree.
Eopyk 3 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
What are you talking about this was quite illuminating. My only regret is that it wasn't much longer-but considering how vast Hindu/Vedic literature is, they could only present a brief overview. How could one ignore also the provacative implications that Greek and Latin culture derived much of their knowledge from Hindus (Indians).
desilink 5 years ago
they come from a common source which *no longer exists*. The similarities are due to this, not due to one daughter branch (India) being the origin of all the others.
tarhun 4 years ago
This comment has received too many negative votes show
Actually there is no "common source" This theory was devised due to the inability of ethnocentric 19th century europeans to accept that Indic culture could be the source of European, despite clear evidence and no evidence to the contrary.
KL3RIC 4 years ago
Our modern understanding of historical linguistics is not based on Victorian racism, it's a science that has proven the facts behind the Indo-European linguistic family time and time again. And those facts are hardly eurocentrist - depending on the theory, the IE family originated either in the Middle East or Central Asia. *Not* Europe. The only ethnocentrists in the modern debate on this topic are the Indian extremists who refuse to recognize the facts.
tarhun 4 years ago
these are great. anyone have more of the thinking allowed series, please post. most of them are much better than this one. thanks!
baronmorris 5 years ago