Added: 4 years ago
From: vulcanmat613
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  • I'm very confused on the issue of Torah's divinity/authorship at the moment.

    Have you ever studied the JEPD theory of the origins of Torah, which suggests that there were several different authors?

  • Can I ask another question, please? I heard an audio lesson in which a rabbi said that when Hashem tells Moshe to tell the people His name is I AM he doesn't use ani but ANOCHI, with anochi being an acronym.

    Each letter of the word anochi spells a word which means, my soul is in this Torah. Have you heard of this?

  • It's sad to find these same xtian arguments on virtually all Jewish video commention sections.

    Just a ger but... when the bible says "let us make G-d in our image" in Hebrew isn't there an important significance in the use of "bara" versus "bar'u"? And in the Shema a major difference between ECHAD (an absolute one without components and Yichud (unity, as in the trinity? (sorry for the spelling)

  • keliata - these are not xtian arguments; this is the same recycled garbage they've been writing for years on end - they have no actual 'arguments', only dribble like 'hints' in verses or whatever, which of course are always taken out of context or mistranslated.

    Anyway, bara is the singular, baru is the plural - echad is an absolute number, one.

    Yichud has nothing to do with the trinity - g-d is unified in a way that is comparable to no other unity (one of the 13 principles)

  • Also, in terms of unity, when we say it we refer to the unification of G-d's many names. As in, leshaym yichud kudsha berichu - we 'unify' as it were, the letters yud,(pause) hey, vav, and (pause) hey. It has nothing to dow ith G-d being broken up or divisble - such is christian doctrine(absurd as well, since division means limitation, this was merely a pagan idea which was made christian as a way to attract converts, however I do not believe yushke himslef was dumb enough to believe it)

  • vulcanmat613=It is very clear in Jeremiah 31:31-34 that the Lord will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, and so he did.

  • Perhaps that "new" covenant means when the TRUE Jewish moshiach arrives, not JC.

  • There is no new covenant - there is only the fulfillment of the original. hashem made no new covenant, since there was never a breech of the first(notice how in lamentations it says 'LIKE a widow')

  • The Lord did made a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah 2000 years ago that's why God send his son Yeshua the Messiah, that covenant still exists today and he would like todays Jewish people to read the Brit Chadasha. It's a very Jewish book, prophecies describing the Messiah are fulfilled as it is mentioned in that book.

  • Clear proofs from the Bible about confessing and rejecting Yeshua (JESUS):

    Matthew 10:32-33 "Those who declare publicly that they belong to me, I will do the same for them before my Father in heaven. But those who reject me publicly, I will reject before my Father in heaven."

  • You offer no counter-argument..just name-calling..that's quite immature.

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