Added: 2 years ago
From: ayabaya
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  • Ha ha, I wonder if J. P. Mallory really does edit Wikipedia.

  • I would be interested to hear Renfrew's views on David Anthony's competing reworking of the 'from the Steppes' theory which places it much later

  • Europe was uralic+borean+vasconic speaking before ie migrations.

    First attested ie people are anatolian hittites and they look mediterranean non nordic in their illustrations of weddings etc.

    Hittites are phenotypically very close to nowadays kurds.

  • @hanzukik no Uralic spread to Europe much later in fact Proto-Uralic was spoken in the east not in Europe and was most likely spoken more less at the same time as PIE or not as far from it.

    Proto-Finno-Ugric was spoken only about 3000 years back more or less and that breaks the idea of Uralic being a pre-IE language group.

    We are talking languages  not phenoptypes :)

  • I don't follow this theory. The best explanation is actually both the Kurgan hypothesis and the Paleolithic Continuity Theory. The pre-PIE urheimat is likely Central Europe (especially Germany) with Southern Russia and the Ukrainian steppes as the second.

  • In other words, a west to east migration and a series of warlike invasions from the steppes where the Celtic/Italic/Germanic/Balto-S­lavic tribes ended up returning to their continental mainland and the Indo-Aryan tribes proceeding further East into Central/South Asia.

  • Only a Briton would like to think of a fragmented series of "peaceful" migrations. LOL!

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