Again Jesus said, “Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am sending you.” And with that he breathed on them and said, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone’s sins, their sins are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven.”
Breath = A New Creation, like God breathed life into Adam, therefore Confess= A New Creation.
I remember not long ago, I was just sitting on the sofa and this feeling of peace came over me. It was so confident and trustworthy that I had to be quiet and just focus on this peace. I believe the Holy Spirit had come over me and gave me such reasurrance of His blood sacrifice that I knew I was forgiven and I knew I had just put all my trust in Him. It was like wow!!! I felt so wonderful and I didn't even go to a priest, then I asked Jesus to give peace to all those I had hurt. Just beleev
@bornagainsaint1 Beloved, several things concern me. First, confidence and trust should be validated by feeling. Second, the Holy Spirit does not "come over" a believer. He bears witness with your human spirit. Third, the forgivenss of which you speak appears to be forgiveness at the point of salvation. The forgiveness of which I speak is post-salvation. Fourth, correct. You are the priest. No need for an intermediary. Fifth, praying to Jesus is unbiblical in the Church Age. Pray to the Father.
But to him not working, but believing on Him justifying the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also says of the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness without works, saying, "Blessed are those whose lawlessnesses are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; blessed is the man to whom the Lord will in no way impute sin."
How ignorant can one be? This verse describes non-believers people. Read on!
I hope you are not angry at my comment, because if you are, well, you must confess it! That is a big sin! What is this?! A joke? Read 1 John 4:17! Think through it! 1:9 talks about believing in Christ, and it is for non-believers. That explains the sin unto death - that is, unbelief - you are not saved, you are dead.
You comments are appreciated but rejected as in error. 1 John 1:9 addresses the post-salvation sin of a born-again believer. Angry? Why? Agape love is always the order of the day where disagreement exists. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved! The sin unto death is premature death, the final level of divine discipline for Christian failure to live the Christian way of life.
Your comments are appreciated but rejected as in error. 1 John 1:9 addresses the post-salvation sin of a born-again believer. Angry? Why? Agape love is always the order of the day where disagreement exists. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved! The sin unto death is premature death, the final level of divine discipline for Christian failure to live the Christian way of life
Since confession is prayer and prayer is to be addressed to God the Father, it is not necessary to confess sin to a human being. Since a Priest is a human being, the Christian can bypass the Priest and go directly to God the Father. 1 John 1:9 tells the Christian to "confess" his sins. The word "confess" means "to name" -- Lord I lied, cheated, stole, etc. If that sounds too easy, it's because deparved human beings want to complicate God's plan. Do not confess to Jesus. (see next comment)
Confess to God the Father. "Father, I (name your sin(s)." You receive immediate forgiveness and cleansing. Now, pick-up and move on. If you need to ask a follow-up question, please don't hesitate to ask.
By confessing to a priest you are confessing to Jesus. A priest never acts on his own accord but by the authority of Jesus given to him By jesus at Ordination. Jesus tells St. Maria Faustina that "I am only hidden behind the priest. Jesus does the healing and forgiving only using the priest as an agent. Don't let this guy tell you otherwise.
Obviously, no one has ever taught you to distinguish between judicial forgiveness and experiential forgiveness. Even the unbeliever's sins have been judicially forgiven. Pre-salvation sins are not forgiven experientially until the moment of faith-alone in Christ-alone. Post-salvation sins are experientially forgiven at the moment of confession with the use of 1 John 1:9. Sins are not an issue in salvation. It's faith-alone in Christ-alone that saves!!!!
We agree on (a): Paul taught that sins of a believer's past, present and future - which logically MUST include all post-salvation sins - were covered at Calvary.
I'm asking you to prove (b): post-salvation sins are somehow not covered by (a), meaning they're unforgiven unless/until they're individually confessed. Where'd Paul teach this?
If I'm wrong I will gladly repent. If I'm right, you haven't thought this through carefully and are teaching a form of confessional salvation.
4:10 - you claim Calvary covers "every sin every man would ever commit, past present and future."
4:34 - At salvation, you claim God forgives the believer's sins from birth "right up to that moment."
This is the EXACT teaching Catholics use against the idea of unconditional eternal safety in Christ. Wittingly or not, your video teaches, not Pauline salvation, but confessional probation, i.e., eventual salvation via confession.
4:34 -- You got it. Concerning EXACT teaching Catholics use, don't place me there. I teach eternal security, once saved always saved. You seem to have a problem with your understanding of the Christian way of life between salvation and death or rapture. I teach the same Gospel that Paul taught.
If you teach once saved always saved - as I do - why do you go to John as your rule of cleansing when (1) you're ALREADY declared righteous and positionally cleansed of all sin in Christ, and (b) 1 Jn 1:9 is clearly conditional? Note well: IF 'we' [John's audience] confess, THEN God forgives and cleanses us. IF 'we' DON'T , He WON'T. John says unconfessed sins are NOT forgiven. Paul says they ALREADY ARE, and you AGREED with him! You are inconsistent on this.
Inconsistent? Not on your life. You are not listening. It's the difference between Classic Dispensationalism and Hyperdispensationalism. It's the difference between judicial forgiveness and experiential forgiveness. It's the difference between phase one of God's plan and phase two of God's plan. You are not willing to acknowledge their existence. Until you do, you'll never understand.
No you don't. You would not then believe then in faith alone. Not translated as such until 1531 or so. You would believe in the true prescece of Jesus in the Eucharist and you would "Hold fast to the traditions we have given you" You and no other protestant do this. Sorry but you are way off and I am willing to address this matter in personal messages as long as it takes, weather you have a doctorate in biblical theology or not.
I must also add that Paul says quite clearly we who are in Christ are dead to the Law, which is God's means of condemnation of sin; hence Rom 8:1, et al. So again, I can't help but see a conflict when one claims to hold to that blessed truth while simultaneously claiming the "if/then" rule of 1 Jn 1:9 as the method of forgiveness for Body members today. They simply do not sync up.
You fail to distinguish truth related to salvation and truth related to the moment-by-moment walk. Romans 8:1 relates to salvation. 1 John 1:9 relates to the moment-by-moment walk. Your paradigm blinds you to truth.
John's inspired choice of phrasing demands the opposite is likewise true: if we (whatever group the "we" John had in mind is) do NOT confess sins, they are NOT forgiven and "we" will NOT be cleansed. 1 Jn 1:9 is totally out of harmony with many Pauline verses on forgiveness, one of the clearest being Romans 8:1.
I believe 1 John 1:9, being written by an apostle to the circumcision, has a Jewish/Kingdom application...not for the Body today.
I'm persuaded 1 Jn 1:9 is conditional, given the "if/then" on confession & cleansing.
Col 2:13, however, says believers today HAVE BEEN forgiven ALL sin in Him.
Because Paul's statement is as clear as John's, yet they oppose one another, I believe 1 Jn 1:9 can't applies to believers during this dispensation of grace since Paul - not John - is our apostle. John was not speaking to the Body.
Our sins SHOULD be confessed, but not per 1 Jn 1:9.
No wish to argue here, either, so all dispensational issues aside: on what grounds do you teach the "all sins" of Col 2:13 applies only up to the point of salvation, but does not cover sins committed by a believer afterward?
If we do not have ALL sins - past and future - forgiven at salvation, then some are left outstanding and we must confess as we go "or else," true?
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John 20:21-23
Again Jesus said, “Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am sending you.” And with that he breathed on them and said, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone’s sins, their sins are forgiven; if you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven.”
Breath = A New Creation, like God breathed life into Adam, therefore Confess= A New Creation.
teton99 9 months ago
I remember not long ago, I was just sitting on the sofa and this feeling of peace came over me. It was so confident and trustworthy that I had to be quiet and just focus on this peace. I believe the Holy Spirit had come over me and gave me such reasurrance of His blood sacrifice that I knew I was forgiven and I knew I had just put all my trust in Him. It was like wow!!! I felt so wonderful and I didn't even go to a priest, then I asked Jesus to give peace to all those I had hurt. Just beleev
bornagainsaint1 1 year ago
@bornagainsaint1 Beloved, several things concern me. First, confidence and trust should be validated by feeling. Second, the Holy Spirit does not "come over" a believer. He bears witness with your human spirit. Third, the forgivenss of which you speak appears to be forgiveness at the point of salvation. The forgiveness of which I speak is post-salvation. Fourth, correct. You are the priest. No need for an intermediary. Fifth, praying to Jesus is unbiblical in the Church Age. Pray to the Father.
brettelljim 1 year ago
But to him not working, but believing on Him justifying the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also says of the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness without works, saying, "Blessed are those whose lawlessnesses are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; blessed is the man to whom the Lord will in no way impute sin."
What about this? What does it say?
ovidiutu 2 years ago
How ignorant can one be? This verse describes non-believers people. Read on!
I hope you are not angry at my comment, because if you are, well, you must confess it! That is a big sin! What is this?! A joke? Read 1 John 4:17! Think through it! 1:9 talks about believing in Christ, and it is for non-believers. That explains the sin unto death - that is, unbelief - you are not saved, you are dead.
ovidiutu 2 years ago
You comments are appreciated but rejected as in error. 1 John 1:9 addresses the post-salvation sin of a born-again believer. Angry? Why? Agape love is always the order of the day where disagreement exists. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved! The sin unto death is premature death, the final level of divine discipline for Christian failure to live the Christian way of life.
brettelljim 2 years ago
Your comments are appreciated but rejected as in error. 1 John 1:9 addresses the post-salvation sin of a born-again believer. Angry? Why? Agape love is always the order of the day where disagreement exists. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved! The sin unto death is premature death, the final level of divine discipline for Christian failure to live the Christian way of life
brettelljim 2 years ago
Can I confess to jesus directly rather than to a priest? Can I tell god my sins instead of priest? If so, how do I do it?
Please reply.
Lord0Delete 2 years ago
Since confession is prayer and prayer is to be addressed to God the Father, it is not necessary to confess sin to a human being. Since a Priest is a human being, the Christian can bypass the Priest and go directly to God the Father. 1 John 1:9 tells the Christian to "confess" his sins. The word "confess" means "to name" -- Lord I lied, cheated, stole, etc. If that sounds too easy, it's because deparved human beings want to complicate God's plan. Do not confess to Jesus. (see next comment)
brettelljim 2 years ago
Confess to God the Father. "Father, I (name your sin(s)." You receive immediate forgiveness and cleansing. Now, pick-up and move on. If you need to ask a follow-up question, please don't hesitate to ask.
brettelljim 2 years ago
Thank you for your guidance, please accept me on your friends list. Thank you.
Lord0Delete 2 years ago
By confessing to a priest you are confessing to Jesus. A priest never acts on his own accord but by the authority of Jesus given to him By jesus at Ordination. Jesus tells St. Maria Faustina that "I am only hidden behind the priest. Jesus does the healing and forgiving only using the priest as an agent. Don't let this guy tell you otherwise.
cheesemonkey1990 2 years ago 3
Obviously, no one has ever taught you to distinguish between judicial forgiveness and experiential forgiveness. Even the unbeliever's sins have been judicially forgiven. Pre-salvation sins are not forgiven experientially until the moment of faith-alone in Christ-alone. Post-salvation sins are experientially forgiven at the moment of confession with the use of 1 John 1:9. Sins are not an issue in salvation. It's faith-alone in Christ-alone that saves!!!!
brettelljim 3 years ago
Teach me.
We agree on (a): Paul taught that sins of a believer's past, present and future - which logically MUST include all post-salvation sins - were covered at Calvary.
I'm asking you to prove (b): post-salvation sins are somehow not covered by (a), meaning they're unforgiven unless/until they're individually confessed. Where'd Paul teach this?
If I'm wrong I will gladly repent. If I'm right, you haven't thought this through carefully and are teaching a form of confessional salvation.
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
4:10 - you claim Calvary covers "every sin every man would ever commit, past present and future."
4:34 - At salvation, you claim God forgives the believer's sins from birth "right up to that moment."
This is the EXACT teaching Catholics use against the idea of unconditional eternal safety in Christ. Wittingly or not, your video teaches, not Pauline salvation, but confessional probation, i.e., eventual salvation via confession.
That's not the Gospel of the grace of God.
It's works.
hobo
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
4:10 -- You got it.
4:34 -- You got it. Concerning EXACT teaching Catholics use, don't place me there. I teach eternal security, once saved always saved. You seem to have a problem with your understanding of the Christian way of life between salvation and death or rapture. I teach the same Gospel that Paul taught.
brettelljim 3 years ago
If you teach once saved always saved - as I do - why do you go to John as your rule of cleansing when (1) you're ALREADY declared righteous and positionally cleansed of all sin in Christ, and (b) 1 Jn 1:9 is clearly conditional? Note well: IF 'we' [John's audience] confess, THEN God forgives and cleanses us. IF 'we' DON'T , He WON'T. John says unconfessed sins are NOT forgiven. Paul says they ALREADY ARE, and you AGREED with him! You are inconsistent on this.
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
Inconsistent? Not on your life. You are not listening. It's the difference between Classic Dispensationalism and Hyperdispensationalism. It's the difference between judicial forgiveness and experiential forgiveness. It's the difference between phase one of God's plan and phase two of God's plan. You are not willing to acknowledge their existence. Until you do, you'll never understand.
brettelljim 3 years ago
No you don't. You would not then believe then in faith alone. Not translated as such until 1531 or so. You would believe in the true prescece of Jesus in the Eucharist and you would "Hold fast to the traditions we have given you" You and no other protestant do this. Sorry but you are way off and I am willing to address this matter in personal messages as long as it takes, weather you have a doctorate in biblical theology or not.
cheesemonkey1990 2 years ago
I must also add that Paul says quite clearly we who are in Christ are dead to the Law, which is God's means of condemnation of sin; hence Rom 8:1, et al. So again, I can't help but see a conflict when one claims to hold to that blessed truth while simultaneously claiming the "if/then" rule of 1 Jn 1:9 as the method of forgiveness for Body members today. They simply do not sync up.
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
You fail to distinguish truth related to salvation and truth related to the moment-by-moment walk. Romans 8:1 relates to salvation. 1 John 1:9 relates to the moment-by-moment walk. Your paradigm blinds you to truth.
brettelljim 3 years ago
Slight edit:
John's inspired choice of phrasing demands the opposite is likewise true: if we (whatever group the "we" John had in mind is) do NOT confess sins, they are NOT forgiven and "we" will NOT be cleansed. 1 Jn 1:9 is totally out of harmony with many Pauline verses on forgiveness, one of the clearest being Romans 8:1.
I believe 1 John 1:9, being written by an apostle to the circumcision, has a Jewish/Kingdom application...not for the Body today.
Again, grace to you! In Him,
Hobo
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
Difference of paradigms. I am a Classical Dispensationalist; you a Hyperdispenationalist. In Christian love, I will to agree to disagree.
brettelljim 3 years ago
I'm persuaded 1 Jn 1:9 is conditional, given the "if/then" on confession & cleansing.
Col 2:13, however, says believers today HAVE BEEN forgiven ALL sin in Him.
Because Paul's statement is as clear as John's, yet they oppose one another, I believe 1 Jn 1:9 can't applies to believers during this dispensation of grace since Paul - not John - is our apostle. John was not speaking to the Body.
Our sins SHOULD be confessed, but not per 1 Jn 1:9.
Just my thoughts; continued grace to you!
justagalactichobo 3 years ago
Colossians 2:13 a salvation application. 1 John 1:9 a post-salvation application.
brettelljim 3 years ago
No wish to argue here, either, so all dispensational issues aside: on what grounds do you teach the "all sins" of Col 2:13 applies only up to the point of salvation, but does not cover sins committed by a believer afterward?
If we do not have ALL sins - past and future - forgiven at salvation, then some are left outstanding and we must confess as we go "or else," true?
justagalactichobo 3 years ago